IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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Hello Friends,
The most beloved 60 Days for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019 has finally begun 🙂
Once again the time has come for the battle (Prelims). And who else than your best companion in the last preparatory phase for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019 i.e 60 days plan.
It does not matter how slowly you go as long as you do not stop.
Hope the message given above makes sense to you all.
The productive utilization of this programme demands consistency, honesty, faith and strong determination to be in the process of learning and unlearning. You might not be fully prepared to solve all the questions but the learning and unlearning through these questions will prepare you for the real battle on 2nd June 2019.
You have to unlearn your repetitive mistakes, gut feeling on which you mark doubtful questions. You have to learn new things and also those concepts that you were very sure of but somehow because of traps in the option, got it wrong. You have to learn ‘how to convert knowledge into marks’ (Because most of the times, after ending the exam, you regret making mistakes in known concepts).
Secondly, keep a long distance from following too many things at this point. It will always backfire. Once you are here, put complete faith and follow this initiative along with whatever you were doing. It is very important to consolidate your preparation with many revisions. Simply following many things will leave you in despair. You can cross check this with veterans.
Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity. Be wise!
Let us pledge to make it a big game changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days of this plan!
Importance of Self – Tracking: Learning from Last Year
Last year, aspirants used to type/post their answers in the comment box on a daily basis. There were huge participation and discussion below the test post. Putting answers in the comment box has been very effective to self-track yourself after updating the score. In the end, you can cross check your performance through Disqus profile.
It was highly effective in the last edition of 60 Days that propelled aspirants to monitor their performance and learn through discussion. Let you solve these questions with full honesty and write your result in the comment box. Interact with peers to know your mistakes.
The importance of this initiative stands time-bound and aggressive reverse engineering to learn the concepts. Many of you must be busy with your own strategy but let us tell you honestly that in the last few months, it is very important to revise and consolidate your learning. Just reading won’t suffice.
So, take out a few hours from your schedule and make it a revision exercise.
How can you make the best use of it?
Be honest to your effort and do not start competing with XYZ aspirants just for the sake of marks. It is more important for you to introspect and check your learning than focusing on others. Try to answer the questions in 25 minutes only.
Do not get into negative feeling that I don’t have enough knowledge to answer these questions. Feel like you are taking the real exam. What would be your response then?
The same will be replicated in the UPSC exam. Here, you get marks only and nothing else matters. So, make effort to know the answers to all questions. Do not cheat 😛
DETAILED MICRO ANALYSIS MATRIX SAMPLE– is given here. You can download this and do an assessment for yourself (the excel sheet must be modified as per this years planning. The provided excel sheet is only for reference). DOWNLOAD
- You can copy paste the same format/modify as per your need in Google Spreadsheet and update it on daily basis.
- Feedback talks about daily test results.
- Follow-up talks about daily target achieved from sources and the number of revisions to do/done and dates. Sources column is to ensure that aspirants do not run behind various sources and follow the same throughout.
Would like to end on this quote:
Either you run the day or the day runs you.
Are you ready? Let’s start!
Important Note
- Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂
- You can post your comments in the given format
- (1) Your Score
- (2) Matrix Meter
- (3) New Learning from the Test
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2019 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
With respect to dew formation consider the following statements:
- The ideal conditions for its formation are clear sky, calm air, high relative humidity, and cold and long nights.
- For the formation of dew, it is necessary that the dew point is below the freezing point.
- White frost, snow and some clouds (cirrus clouds) are produced when the temperature is more than the freezing point.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Explaination:
When the moisture is deposited in the form of water droplets on cooler surfaces of solid objects (rather than nuclei in air above the surface) such as stones, grass blades and plant leaves, it is known as dew.
The ideal conditions for its formation are clear sky, calm air, high relative humidity, and cold and long nights. For the formation of dew, it is necessary that the dew point is above the freezing point.
White frost, snow and some clouds (cirrus clouds) are produced when the temperature is lower than the freezing point. Dew, fog and clouds result even when the temperature is higher than the freezing point.
Incorrect
Explaination:
When the moisture is deposited in the form of water droplets on cooler surfaces of solid objects (rather than nuclei in air above the surface) such as stones, grass blades and plant leaves, it is known as dew.
The ideal conditions for its formation are clear sky, calm air, high relative humidity, and cold and long nights. For the formation of dew, it is necessary that the dew point is above the freezing point.
White frost, snow and some clouds (cirrus clouds) are produced when the temperature is lower than the freezing point. Dew, fog and clouds result even when the temperature is higher than the freezing point.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to the atmosphere:
- The proportion of gases changes in the higher layers of the atmosphere in such a way that oxygen will be almost in negligible quantity at the height of 120 km.
- Carbon dioxide and water vapour are found only up to 90 km from the surface of the earth.
- Nitrogen and oxygen make up nearly 99% of the clean dry air.
- The water vapour absorbs only the long-wave terrestrial radiation (infrared or heat emitted by earth during nights).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Explaination :
The proportion of gases changes in the higher layers of the atmosphere in such a way that oxygen will be almost in negligible quantity at the height of 120 km. Similarly, carbon dioxide and water vapour are found only up to 90 km from the surface of the earth.
Nitrogen and oxygen make up nearly 99% of the clean, “dry” air. The remaining gases are mostly inert and constitute about 1% of the atmosphere.
Water Vapour is one of the most variable gaseous substances present in atmosphere – constituting between 0.2% and 4% of the total volume (in cold dry and humid tropical climates respectively). 90% of moisture content in the atmosphere exists within 6 km of the surface of the earth. Like carbon dioxide, water vapour plays a significant role in the insulating action, of the atmosphere.
It absorbs not only the long-wave terrestrial radiation (infrared or heat emitted by earth during nights), but also a part of the incoming solar radiation. It is the source of precipitation and clouds. On condensation, it releases latent heat of condensation —the ultimate driving force behind all storms.
Incorrect
Explaination :
The proportion of gases changes in the higher layers of the atmosphere in such a way that oxygen will be almost in negligible quantity at the height of 120 km. Similarly, carbon dioxide and water vapour are found only up to 90 km from the surface of the earth.
Nitrogen and oxygen make up nearly 99% of the clean, “dry” air. The remaining gases are mostly inert and constitute about 1% of the atmosphere.
Water Vapour is one of the most variable gaseous substances present in atmosphere – constituting between 0.2% and 4% of the total volume (in cold dry and humid tropical climates respectively). 90% of moisture content in the atmosphere exists within 6 km of the surface of the earth. Like carbon dioxide, water vapour plays a significant role in the insulating action, of the atmosphere.
It absorbs not only the long-wave terrestrial radiation (infrared or heat emitted by earth during nights), but also a part of the incoming solar radiation. It is the source of precipitation and clouds. On condensation, it releases latent heat of condensation —the ultimate driving force behind all storms.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Consider the following statements regarding insolation:
- Insolation is only one in two billion parts of solar radiation.
- Heat generated by volcanoes, springs and geysers is negligible compared to that received from sun.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect:
Correct
Note: Incorrect options have been asked.
Explanation:
Earth intercepts only one in two billion parts of solar radiation. This intercepted radiation is called Insolation.
Some heat within the core and mantle is transferred to the surface and ocean bottoms through volcanoes, springs and geysers. But this heat received at the surface form interiors of the earth is negligible compared to that received from sun.
Incorrect
Note: Incorrect options have been asked.
Explanation:
Earth intercepts only one in two billion parts of solar radiation. This intercepted radiation is called Insolation.
Some heat within the core and mantle is transferred to the surface and ocean bottoms through volcanoes, springs and geysers. But this heat received at the surface form interiors of the earth is negligible compared to that received from sun.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the temperature distribution:
- Diurnal and annual range of temperatures is minimum in the interiors of continents due to the effect of continentality.
- Diurnal and annual range of temperatures is maximum in oceans.
- Temperature gradients are usually higher over the eastern margins of continent and lower over the western margins of continents.
- High temperature gradients are observed over tropics and low temperature gradients over middle and higher latitudes.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Explanation:
Diurnal and annual range of temperatures is highest in the interiors of continents due to the effect of continentiality (in continental interiors these will no moderating effect of oceans).
Diurnal and annual range of temperatures is least in oceans. [High specific heat of water and mixing of water keep the range low]
Low temperature gradients are observed over tropics (sun is almost overhead the entire year) and high temperature gradients over middle and higher latitudes (sun’s apparent path varies significantly from season to season).
Temperature gradients are usually low over the eastern margins of continents. (This is because of warm ocean currents) while temperature gradients are usually high over the western margins of continents. (This is because of cold ocean currents)
Other points to remember: The isotherms are irregular over the northern hemisphere due to an enhanced land-sea contrast. Because of predominance of land over water in the north, the northern hemisphere is warmer.
The thermal equator (ITCZ) lies generally to the north of geographical equator.
While passing through an area with warm ocean currents, the isotherms show a poleward shift.
Incorrect
Explanation:
Diurnal and annual range of temperatures is highest in the interiors of continents due to the effect of continentiality (in continental interiors these will no moderating effect of oceans).
Diurnal and annual range of temperatures is least in oceans. [High specific heat of water and mixing of water keep the range low]
Low temperature gradients are observed over tropics (sun is almost overhead the entire year) and high temperature gradients over middle and higher latitudes (sun’s apparent path varies significantly from season to season).
Temperature gradients are usually low over the eastern margins of continents. (This is because of warm ocean currents) while temperature gradients are usually high over the western margins of continents. (This is because of cold ocean currents)
Other points to remember: The isotherms are irregular over the northern hemisphere due to an enhanced land-sea contrast. Because of predominance of land over water in the north, the northern hemisphere is warmer.
The thermal equator (ITCZ) lies generally to the north of geographical equator.
While passing through an area with warm ocean currents, the isotherms show a poleward shift.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the adiabatic lapse rate:
- It is the rate of fall/rise in temperature of a rising or a falling air parcel adiabatically(means heat doesn’t enter or leave the system).
- Rising of a parcel of air (and associated Positive Adiabatic Lapse Rate) is the first step in the formation of Thunderstorms, Tornadoes and Cyclones.
- Katabatic Wind is an example for a falling parcel of air(and associated with negative adiabatic lapse rate).
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Explanation: Adiabatic Lapse Rate is the rate of fall in temperature of a rising or a falling air parcel adiabatically(meaning heat doesn’t enter or leave the system).It is governed by Gas law.
A parcel of air rises when it is less dense than the surrounding environment and it falls when its density becomes greater than the surrounding environment.
When the air parcel starts to rise, the ambient pressure on it starts to fall. With the fall in ambient pressure, the temperature falls and the volume increases. This is adiabatic (there is no heat exchange between the air parcel and the external environment. All the temperature changes are internal). This rate of fall in temperature with the rising of the air parcel is called Positive Adiabatic Lapse Rate as the Temperature is falling.
Rising of a parcel of air (and associated Positive Adiabatic Lapse Rate) is the first step in the formation of Thunderstorms, Tornadoes and Cyclones.
Similarly when an air parcel is falling, the atmospheric pressure acting on it will increase and its internal temperature will increase adiabatically. [This is Negative Adiabatic Lapse Rate as the Temperature is rising].
Katabatic Wind is a hot dry wind that blows down a mountain slope. It is an example for a falling parcel of air in which the temperature changes happen adiabatically.
Incorrect
Explanation: Adiabatic Lapse Rate is the rate of fall in temperature of a rising or a falling air parcel adiabatically(meaning heat doesn’t enter or leave the system).It is governed by Gas law.
A parcel of air rises when it is less dense than the surrounding environment and it falls when its density becomes greater than the surrounding environment.
When the air parcel starts to rise, the ambient pressure on it starts to fall. With the fall in ambient pressure, the temperature falls and the volume increases. This is adiabatic (there is no heat exchange between the air parcel and the external environment. All the temperature changes are internal). This rate of fall in temperature with the rising of the air parcel is called Positive Adiabatic Lapse Rate as the Temperature is falling.
Rising of a parcel of air (and associated Positive Adiabatic Lapse Rate) is the first step in the formation of Thunderstorms, Tornadoes and Cyclones.
Similarly when an air parcel is falling, the atmospheric pressure acting on it will increase and its internal temperature will increase adiabatically. [This is Negative Adiabatic Lapse Rate as the Temperature is rising].
Katabatic Wind is a hot dry wind that blows down a mountain slope. It is an example for a falling parcel of air in which the temperature changes happen adiabatically.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Variation of atmospheric Pressure:
- The rate of decrease in pressure with altitude is not constant.
- A rising pressure indicates fine, settled weather, while a falling pressure indicates unstable and cloudy weather.
- At the height of Mt. Everest, the air pressure is about two-thirds less than what it is at the sea level.
- The spacing of isobars expresses the rate and direction of pressure changes and is referred to as pressure gradient.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Explanation: In the lower atmosphere the pressure decreases rapidly with height.
At the height of Mt. Everest, the air pressure is about two-thirds less than what it is at the sea level.
The decrease in pressure with altitude, however, is not constant. Since the factors controlling air density – temperature, amount of water vapour and gravity are variable, there is no simple relationship between altitude and pressure.
The pressure decreases with height. At any elevation it varies from place to place and its variation is the primary cause of air motion, i.e. wind which moves from high pressure areas to low pressure areas. A rising pressure indicates fine, settled weather, while a falling pressure indicates unstable and cloudy weather.
Horizontal distribution of pressure is studied by drawing isobars at constant levels.
Isobars are lines connecting places having equal pressure. In order to eliminate the effect of altitude on pressure, it is measured at any station after being reduced to sea level for purposes of comparison. The spacing of isobars expresses the rate and direction of pressure changes and is referred to as pressure gradient.
Incorrect
Explanation: In the lower atmosphere the pressure decreases rapidly with height.
At the height of Mt. Everest, the air pressure is about two-thirds less than what it is at the sea level.
The decrease in pressure with altitude, however, is not constant. Since the factors controlling air density – temperature, amount of water vapour and gravity are variable, there is no simple relationship between altitude and pressure.
The pressure decreases with height. At any elevation it varies from place to place and its variation is the primary cause of air motion, i.e. wind which moves from high pressure areas to low pressure areas. A rising pressure indicates fine, settled weather, while a falling pressure indicates unstable and cloudy weather.
Horizontal distribution of pressure is studied by drawing isobars at constant levels.
Isobars are lines connecting places having equal pressure. In order to eliminate the effect of altitude on pressure, it is measured at any station after being reduced to sea level for purposes of comparison. The spacing of isobars expresses the rate and direction of pressure changes and is referred to as pressure gradient.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Sub-Tropical High Pressure Belt:
- The subsiding air is cold and dry, therefore, most of the deserts are present along this belt, in both hemispheres.
- This belt is frequently invaded by tropical and extra-tropical disturbances.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation: The subsiding air in subtropical high pressure belt is warm and dry(not cold and dry) , therefore, most of the deserts are present along this belt, in both hemispheres.
A calm condition (anticyclonic) with feeble winds is created in this high pressure belt.
The descending air currents feed the winds blowing towards adjoining low pressure belts.
This belt is frequently invaded by tropical and extra-tropical disturbances.
Incorrect
Explanation: The subsiding air in subtropical high pressure belt is warm and dry(not cold and dry) , therefore, most of the deserts are present along this belt, in both hemispheres.
A calm condition (anticyclonic) with feeble winds is created in this high pressure belt.
The descending air currents feed the winds blowing towards adjoining low pressure belts.
This belt is frequently invaded by tropical and extra-tropical disturbances.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the factors affecting wind movement:
- The horizontal winds near the earth surface respond to the combined effect of five forces – the pressure gradient force, the frictional force, the Coriolis force, the gravitational force and the centripetal acceleration.
- The pressure gradient is weak where the isobars are close to each other and is strong where the isobars are apart.
- The wind direction follows the direction of change of pressure, i.e. parallel to the isobars.
Which of the above statements is correct
Correct
Explanation: The horizontal winds near the earth surface respond to the combined effect of three forces – the pressure gradient force, the frictional force and the Coriolis force. While the other two (gravitational force acts downwards and centripetal acceleration produces a circular pattern of flow around centers of high and low pressure).
The pressure gradient is strong where the isobars are close to each other and is weak where the isobars are apart. Since a closely spaced gradient implies a steep pressure change, it also indicates a strong wind speed. The wind direction follows the direction of change of pressure, i.e. perpendicular to the isobars.
Incorrect
Explanation: The horizontal winds near the earth surface respond to the combined effect of three forces – the pressure gradient force, the frictional force and the Coriolis force. While the other two (gravitational force acts downwards and centripetal acceleration produces a circular pattern of flow around centers of high and low pressure).
The pressure gradient is strong where the isobars are close to each other and is weak where the isobars are apart. Since a closely spaced gradient implies a steep pressure change, it also indicates a strong wind speed. The wind direction follows the direction of change of pressure, i.e. perpendicular to the isobars.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the types of winds:
- Chinook is a hot wind of local importance in the Alps.
- Foehn is a strong, gusty, dry and warm wind which develops on the leeward side of a mountain range (Rockies).
- Chinook wind helps animal grazing by melting snow and aids the ripening of grapes.
- Mistral and Sirocco are both harmful winds for humans.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Explanation: Foehn is a hot wind of local importance in the Alps. It is a strong, gusty, dry and warm wind which develops on the leeward side of a mountain range(alps not rockies).The foehn not chinook wind helps animal grazing by melting snow and aids the ripening of grapes.
Chinook is Foehn like winds in USA and Canada move down the west slopes of the Rockies and is beneficial to ranchers east of the Rockies as it keeps the grasslands clear of snow during much of the winter.
Mistral brings blizzards into southern France and the Sirocco causes dusty dry conditions along the northern coast of Africa, storms in the Mediterranean Sea, and cool wet weather in Europe. Hence both are consider harmful.
Incorrect
Explanation: Foehn is a hot wind of local importance in the Alps. It is a strong, gusty, dry and warm wind which develops on the leeward side of a mountain range(alps not rockies).The foehn not chinook wind helps animal grazing by melting snow and aids the ripening of grapes.
Chinook is Foehn like winds in USA and Canada move down the west slopes of the Rockies and is beneficial to ranchers east of the Rockies as it keeps the grasslands clear of snow during much of the winter.
Mistral brings blizzards into southern France and the Sirocco causes dusty dry conditions along the northern coast of Africa, storms in the Mediterranean Sea, and cool wet weather in Europe. Hence both are consider harmful.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Temperature Inversion:
- Long nights, so that the incoming radiation is greater than the outgoing radiation.
- Clear skies, which allow unobstructed escape of radiation.
- Calm and stable air, so that there is no vertical mixing at lower levels.
Which of the above statements is ideal condition for temperature inversion?
Correct
Explanation: Ideal condition includes
- Long nights, so that the outgoing radiation is greater than the incoming radiation. (not the reverse as written in statement 1)
- Clear skies, which allow unobstructed escape of radiation.
- Calm and stable air, so that there is no vertical mixing at lower levels.
Incorrect
Explanation: Ideal condition includes
- Long nights, so that the outgoing radiation is greater than the incoming radiation. (not the reverse as written in statement 1)
- Clear skies, which allow unobstructed escape of radiation.
- Calm and stable air, so that there is no vertical mixing at lower levels.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the jet streams:
- Jet streams are Circumpolar (situated around or inhabiting around the earth’s poles)
- They are narrow, concentrated bands of meandering, upper tropospheric, low velocity, geostrophic streams, bounded by high speed winds
- They are a part of upper level easterlies.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Explanation:
- Jet streams are Circumpolar (situated around or inhabiting around one of the earth’s poles)
- They are narrow, concentrated bands of meandering,upper tropospheric,high velocity, geostrophic streams, bounded by low speed winds.
- They are a part of upper level westerlies.
Incorrect
Explanation:
- Jet streams are Circumpolar (situated around or inhabiting around one of the earth’s poles)
- They are narrow, concentrated bands of meandering,upper tropospheric,high velocity, geostrophic streams, bounded by low speed winds.
- They are a part of upper level westerlies.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Rossby waves:
- In planetary atmospheres, they are due to the variation in the Coriolis Effect with latitude.
- Rossby waves are formed when tropical air moves toward the Equator while polar air is moving poleward.
- The existence of these waves explains the low-pressure cells (cyclones) and high-pressure cells (anticyclones)
Which of the above statements is correct?
Correct
Explanation: The meandering jet streams are called Rossby Waves.
Rossby waves are natural phenomenon in the atmosphere and oceans due to rotation of earth.
In planetary atmospheres, they are due to the variation in the Coriolis effect (When temperature contrast is low, speed of jet stream is low, and Coriolis force is weak leading to meandering) with latitude. Rossby waves are formed when polar air moves toward the Equator while tropical air is moving poleward. The existence of these waves explains the low-pressure cells (cyclones) and high-pressure cells (anticyclones).
Incorrect
Explanation: The meandering jet streams are called Rossby Waves.
Rossby waves are natural phenomenon in the atmosphere and oceans due to rotation of earth.
In planetary atmospheres, they are due to the variation in the Coriolis effect (When temperature contrast is low, speed of jet stream is low, and Coriolis force is weak leading to meandering) with latitude. Rossby waves are formed when polar air moves toward the Equator while tropical air is moving poleward. The existence of these waves explains the low-pressure cells (cyclones) and high-pressure cells (anticyclones).
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the Subtropical jet stream:
- The sub-tropical jet stream is produced by the earth’s rotation and temperature contrast between tropical and sub – tropical regions.
- During summers, the Subtropical jet stream is nearly continuous in both hemispheres.
- The subtropical jet stream exists all year in the northern hemisphere.
- It is intermittent in the southern hemisphere during summer when it migrates south.
Which of the following statements is incorrect?
Correct
Explanation : The sub-tropical jet stream is produced by the earth’s rotation (Coriolis force) and temperature contrast between tropical and sub – tropical regions.
During winter, the STJ is nearly continuous in both hemispheres. The STJ exists all year in the southern hemisphere. However, it is intermittent in the northern hemisphere during summer when it migrates north.
Incorrect
Explanation : The sub-tropical jet stream is produced by the earth’s rotation (Coriolis force) and temperature contrast between tropical and sub – tropical regions.
During winter, the STJ is nearly continuous in both hemispheres. The STJ exists all year in the southern hemisphere. However, it is intermittent in the northern hemisphere during summer when it migrates north.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Which of the following are conditions for the formation of Air masses?
- Source region should be extensive with gentle, divergent air circulation.
- Areas with low pressure but high pressure difference or pressure gradient are ideal source regions.
Select the code from below:
Correct
Explanation:
Conditions for the formation of Air masses:
- Source region should be extensive with gentle, divergent air circulation (slightly at high pressure).
- Areas with high pressure but little pressure difference or pressure gradient are ideal source regions.
Note: There are no major source regions in the mid-latitudes as these regions are dominated by cyclonic and other disturbances.
Incorrect
Explanation:
Conditions for the formation of Air masses:
- Source region should be extensive with gentle, divergent air circulation (slightly at high pressure).
- Areas with high pressure but little pressure difference or pressure gradient are ideal source regions.
Note: There are no major source regions in the mid-latitudes as these regions are dominated by cyclonic and other disturbances.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Occluded front is formed when a cold air mass overtakes a warm air mass and goes underneath it.
- The formation Mid-latitude cyclones involve the formation of occluded front.
Which of the above statements is correct?
Correct
Explanation: Occlusion is a process by which the cold front of a rotating low-pressure system catches up the warm front, so that the warm air between them is forced upwards. Such a front is formed when a cold air mass overtakes a warm air mass and goes underneath it.
Frontolysis begins when warm sector diminishes and the cold air mass completely undertakes the warm sector on ground.
Thus, a long and backward swinging occluded front is formed which could be a warm front type or cold front type occlusion.
Weather along an occluded front is complex. The formation Mid-latitude cyclones [temperate cyclones or extra-tropical cyclones] involve the formation of occluded front.
Incorrect
Explanation: Occlusion is a process by which the cold front of a rotating low-pressure system catches up the warm front, so that the warm air between them is forced upwards. Such a front is formed when a cold air mass overtakes a warm air mass and goes underneath it.
Frontolysis begins when warm sector diminishes and the cold air mass completely undertakes the warm sector on ground.
Thus, a long and backward swinging occluded front is formed which could be a warm front type or cold front type occlusion.
Weather along an occluded front is complex. The formation Mid-latitude cyclones [temperate cyclones or extra-tropical cyclones] involve the formation of occluded front.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the different types of clouds:
- Cirrus clouds are formed at high altitudes with a thin, detached and feathery appearance.
- Cumulus clouds look like cotton wool with a flat base.
- Stratus clouds are generally formed either due to loss of heat or the mixing of air masses with different temperatures.
- Nimbus clouds are always white in color.
Which of the above statements is correct?
Correct
Explanation: Cirrus clouds are always white while the Nimbus clouds are black or dark gray.
Incorrect
Explanation: Cirrus clouds are always white while the Nimbus clouds are black or dark gray.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Smog is similar to haze but there is condensation in smog.
- Photochemical smog is also known as “Los Angeles smog”
- Sulfurous smog (classical) is also called “London smog,”
- Photochemical smog is aggravated by dampness and a high concentration of suspended particulate matter in the air.
- Sulfurous smog causes a light brownish coloration of the atmosphere, reduced visibility, plant damage, irritation of the eyes, and respiratory distress.
Which of the above statements is correct
Correct
Explanation: sulfurous smog is aggravated by dampness and a high concentration of suspended particulate matter in the air. Photochemical smog causes a light brownish coloration of the atmosphere, reduced visibility, plant damage, irritation of the eyes, and respiratory distress.
Incorrect
Explanation: sulfurous smog is aggravated by dampness and a high concentration of suspended particulate matter in the air. Photochemical smog causes a light brownish coloration of the atmosphere, reduced visibility, plant damage, irritation of the eyes, and respiratory distress.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Consider the following statements regarding the polar vortex:
- Polar vortex is closely associated with jet streams [Rossby waves].
- It is formed mainly in winter and gets weaker in summer.
- The polar vortex will remain in its place when the easterlies along with the polar jet are strong
- Strong polar vortex means there is huge temperature contrast between the temperate and polar regions.
Which of the above statements is correct
Correct
Explanation: The polar vortex will remain in its place when the westerlies along with the polar jet are strong.
Incorrect
Explanation: The polar vortex will remain in its place when the westerlies along with the polar jet are strong.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Consider the following differences between China type and Mediterranean type climate:
- The region with China type climate receives more rainfall than region with Mediterranean type climate in same latitude.
- While regions with China type climate receive almost uniform rainfall throughout the year, regions with Mediterranean type climate receive maximum rainfall in winter
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Factual Question.
Both statements are correct
Incorrect
Factual Question.
Both statements are correct
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Consider the following questions regarding Conditions Favourable for Tropical Cyclone Formation:
- Large sea surface with temperature higher than 27° C.
- Presence of the Coriolis force enough to create a cyclonic vortex.
- High variations in the horizontal wind speed.
- A pre-existing weak low-pressure area or low-level-cyclonic circulation.
- Upper divergence below the sea level system.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
Explanation: Conditions Favourable for Tropical Cyclone Formation includes:
- Large sea surface with temperature higher than 27° C,
- Presence of the Coriolis force enough to create a cyclonic vortex,
- Small variations in the vertical wind speed,
- A pre-existing weak low-pressure area or low-level-cyclonic circulation,
- Upper divergence above the sea level system
Incorrect
Explanation: Conditions Favourable for Tropical Cyclone Formation includes:
- Large sea surface with temperature higher than 27° C,
- Presence of the Coriolis force enough to create a cyclonic vortex,
- Small variations in the vertical wind speed,
- A pre-existing weak low-pressure area or low-level-cyclonic circulation,
- Upper divergence above the sea level system
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Atal Bimit Vyakti Kalyan Yojana’
- It benefits workers registered with the Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC).
- It is launched for employees who were left unemployed for three reasons – the closure of factory or establishment, retrenchment or permanent invalidity.
Select the correct statements
Correct
Atal Bimit Vyakti Kalyan Yojna
- Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) has approved a Scheme named “ATAL BIMIT VYAKTI KALYAN YOJNA” for Insured Persons (IP) covered under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948.
- This scheme is a relief payable in cash directly to their Bank Account in case of unemployment and while they search for new engagement.
- For availing super specialty treatment for dependents of Insured Person, the eligibility has been relaxed to insurable employment of one year with 156 days of contributions.
- It approved the proposal for increasing the funeral expenses from existing 10 thousand rupees to 15 thousand rupees being paid on the death of Insured Person.
- The ABVKY will provide cash allowance to ESIC subscribers who are unemployed for at least three months in a row after leaving their previous jobs, for reasons apart from retrenchment and factory closure.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=183695
Read More – https://m.rediff.com/money/special/all-you-want-to-know-about-atal-bimit-vyakti-kalyan-yojana/20180928.htm
Incorrect
Atal Bimit Vyakti Kalyan Yojna
- Employees’ State Insurance Corporation (ESIC) has approved a Scheme named “ATAL BIMIT VYAKTI KALYAN YOJNA” for Insured Persons (IP) covered under the Employees’ State Insurance Act, 1948.
- This scheme is a relief payable in cash directly to their Bank Account in case of unemployment and while they search for new engagement.
- For availing super specialty treatment for dependents of Insured Person, the eligibility has been relaxed to insurable employment of one year with 156 days of contributions.
- It approved the proposal for increasing the funeral expenses from existing 10 thousand rupees to 15 thousand rupees being paid on the death of Insured Person.
- The ABVKY will provide cash allowance to ESIC subscribers who are unemployed for at least three months in a row after leaving their previous jobs, for reasons apart from retrenchment and factory closure.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=183695
Read More – https://m.rediff.com/money/special/all-you-want-to-know-about-atal-bimit-vyakti-kalyan-yojana/20180928.htm
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Human Immunodeficiency Virus and Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (Prevention and Control) Act of 2017’
- It prohibits discrimination against persons living with HIV/AIDS for the purposes of employment, access to educational establishments, healthcare and insurance services, renting property, or running for public or private office.
- It prohibits conducting an HIV test, medical treatment or research on a person without their informed consent.
Select the correct statements
Correct
Both the statements are correct.
The Act prohibits discrimination against persons living with HIV/AIDS for the purposes of employment, access to educational establishments, healthcare and insurance services, renting property, or running for public or private office. The law also bans any form of expression that is deemed as inciting hatred against people infected with HIV/AIDS.
The law prohibits conducting an HIV test, medical treatment or research on a person without their informed consent. The Act prohibits a person from being forced to disclose their HIV/AIDS status, unless mandated by a court order. However, no informed consent will be required by licensed blood banks, medical research, and epidemiological purposes where an HIV test is conducted anonymously and not for the purpose of identifying a specific HIV positive individual.
Human Immunodeficiency Virus and Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (Prevention and Control) Act of 2017
- It deals with topics of a diverse range, from safe working environment, prohibition of discrimination and appointment of an ombudsman, to strategies for reduction of risk and special provisions such as: right of residence, living wills for guardianship and testamentary guardianship.
- It safeguards the human rights of people living with HIV and AIDS.
- It has highlighted the necessity for effective care, support and treatment for HIV and AIDS.
- It spawns from the commitment to the global community under the Declaration of Commitment on Human Immunodeficiency Virus and Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (2001) for enhanced coordination and intensification of national, regional and international efforts to combat the virus and syndrome in a comprehensive manner.
- India, is a signatory to the Declaration of Commitment on Human Immunodeficiency Virus and Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (2001)
- It makes a legal obligation to protect the privacy of persons with HIV and AIDS
- It addresses discrimination meted out to persons with HIV and AIDS.
- It fortifies the health and medical health-care system for them and introduces legal accountability along with formal mechanisms to inquire into complaints and redress grievances.
- It lists various grounds on which discrimination against persons with HIV is prohibited
- The requirement for HIV testing as a pre-requisite for obtaining employment or accessing health care or education is also prohibited.
- It provides that every HIV infected or affected person below the age of 18 years has the right to reside in a shared household
- Violation of the act by publishing information about people living with HIV (PLHIV) or advocating hatred against them would attract imprisonment ranging from three months to two years or a maximum fine of Rs one lakh or both.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/protecting-persons-with-hiv-aids/article24998255.ece
Incorrect
Both the statements are correct.
The Act prohibits discrimination against persons living with HIV/AIDS for the purposes of employment, access to educational establishments, healthcare and insurance services, renting property, or running for public or private office. The law also bans any form of expression that is deemed as inciting hatred against people infected with HIV/AIDS.
The law prohibits conducting an HIV test, medical treatment or research on a person without their informed consent. The Act prohibits a person from being forced to disclose their HIV/AIDS status, unless mandated by a court order. However, no informed consent will be required by licensed blood banks, medical research, and epidemiological purposes where an HIV test is conducted anonymously and not for the purpose of identifying a specific HIV positive individual.
Human Immunodeficiency Virus and Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (Prevention and Control) Act of 2017
- It deals with topics of a diverse range, from safe working environment, prohibition of discrimination and appointment of an ombudsman, to strategies for reduction of risk and special provisions such as: right of residence, living wills for guardianship and testamentary guardianship.
- It safeguards the human rights of people living with HIV and AIDS.
- It has highlighted the necessity for effective care, support and treatment for HIV and AIDS.
- It spawns from the commitment to the global community under the Declaration of Commitment on Human Immunodeficiency Virus and Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (2001) for enhanced coordination and intensification of national, regional and international efforts to combat the virus and syndrome in a comprehensive manner.
- India, is a signatory to the Declaration of Commitment on Human Immunodeficiency Virus and Acquired Immune Deficiency Syndrome (2001)
- It makes a legal obligation to protect the privacy of persons with HIV and AIDS
- It addresses discrimination meted out to persons with HIV and AIDS.
- It fortifies the health and medical health-care system for them and introduces legal accountability along with formal mechanisms to inquire into complaints and redress grievances.
- It lists various grounds on which discrimination against persons with HIV is prohibited
- The requirement for HIV testing as a pre-requisite for obtaining employment or accessing health care or education is also prohibited.
- It provides that every HIV infected or affected person below the age of 18 years has the right to reside in a shared household
- Violation of the act by publishing information about people living with HIV (PLHIV) or advocating hatred against them would attract imprisonment ranging from three months to two years or a maximum fine of Rs one lakh or both.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/opinion/op-ed/protecting-persons-with-hiv-aids/article24998255.ece
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to Adoption rules in India?
- Indians in domestic live-in partnerships and staying abroad can adopt via Central Adoption Resource Authority (CARA)
- Single women can adopt a child of any gender, while single men can adopt only boys
Select the correct statements
Correct
Adoption Rules – Update
Individuals in a live-in relationship will be able to adopt children from and within India.
The eligibility criteria under Adoption Regulations, 2017, permit single women to adopt a child of any gender, while single men can adopt only boys.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/live-in-partners-can-adopt-now/article25010051.ece
Incorrect
Adoption Rules – Update
Individuals in a live-in relationship will be able to adopt children from and within India.
The eligibility criteria under Adoption Regulations, 2017, permit single women to adopt a child of any gender, while single men can adopt only boys.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/live-in-partners-can-adopt-now/article25010051.ece
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Consider the following statements about ‘National e-Vidhan Application (NeVA)’
- The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology is the Nodal Ministry for the project.
- It aims to make all the Legislatures of the country paperless by making the proceedings of the Houses digital.
Select the correct statements
Correct
National e-Vidhan Application (NeVA)
- It is a member-centric, decentralised digital application that makes information available on digital platform about day to day functioning of Legislative Houses.
- NeVA, an initiative by Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs, aims to make all the Legislatures of the country paperless by making the proceedings of the Houses digital. It is an attempt to provide the information about the functioning of House to the common citizen at the click of a button.
- The mNeVA (NeVA-mobile app) is a device neutral and user friendly app that has made information on conduct of business in Legislatures accessible anytime, anywhere to everyone.
- It is a work-flow based app deployed in Cloud (Meghraj) which helps the Chair of the House to conduct the proceedings of the House smoothly and the members to carry out their duties in the House efficiently.
- NeVA has made live for Rajya Sabha in respect of Monsoon Session 2018 and information in respect of Lok Sabha is being updated.
- The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs is the Nodal Ministry for the project.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=183679
Incorrect
National e-Vidhan Application (NeVA)
- It is a member-centric, decentralised digital application that makes information available on digital platform about day to day functioning of Legislative Houses.
- NeVA, an initiative by Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs, aims to make all the Legislatures of the country paperless by making the proceedings of the Houses digital. It is an attempt to provide the information about the functioning of House to the common citizen at the click of a button.
- The mNeVA (NeVA-mobile app) is a device neutral and user friendly app that has made information on conduct of business in Legislatures accessible anytime, anywhere to everyone.
- It is a work-flow based app deployed in Cloud (Meghraj) which helps the Chair of the House to conduct the proceedings of the House smoothly and the members to carry out their duties in the House efficiently.
- NeVA has made live for Rajya Sabha in respect of Monsoon Session 2018 and information in respect of Lok Sabha is being updated.
- The Ministry of Parliamentary Affairs is the Nodal Ministry for the project.
Source: http://pib.nic.in/newsite/PrintRelease.aspx?relid=183679
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
‘The Future of Jobs Report’ is published by
Correct
The Future of Jobs Report
- It is published by World Economic Forum
- It seeks to understand the current and future impact of key disruptions on employment levels, skill sets and recruitment patterns in different industries and countries
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/machines-will-rule-workplace-by-2025/article24970906.ece
Incorrect
The Future of Jobs Report
- It is published by World Economic Forum
- It seeks to understand the current and future impact of key disruptions on employment levels, skill sets and recruitment patterns in different industries and countries
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/Economy/machines-will-rule-workplace-by-2025/article24970906.ece
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
The growing ‘SILT’ has been one of the major problems of Indian Rivers. Which of the following statements are correct regarding it?
- Silt raises the riverbed leading to devastating floods.
- Heavy silt deposits in the river slow down the river flow, posing a big challenge to India’s ambitious national waterway project.
- Silt deposits are greatest near the confluence points of tributaries coming from the mountains.
Select the correct code:
Correct
All the statements are correct.
Recently a central government committee recommends removal of silt along the Ganga in Bihar to reduce flood risks and boost shipping.
Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/governance/expert-committee-sheds-light-on-bihar-s-mounting-silt-crisis-61668
Incorrect
All the statements are correct.
Recently a central government committee recommends removal of silt along the Ganga in Bihar to reduce flood risks and boost shipping.
Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/governance/expert-committee-sheds-light-on-bihar-s-mounting-silt-crisis-61668
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
The term “Khirni” recently in news correctly describes:
Correct
Khirni is a life-saving fruit mentioned in ancient texts and also has medicinal properties.
Khirni (Manilkara hexandra) flowers between September and December and the fruit ripens between April and June. The tree is 3-12 m high and is usually found in forests.
It is a tropical tree and grows in China, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Myanmar Thailand, Cambodia and Vietnam. In India, it is found in Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu. But these days the fruit is not easily available in the market.
Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/food/kings-ate-this-fruit-to-restore-their-youth-61651
Incorrect
Khirni is a life-saving fruit mentioned in ancient texts and also has medicinal properties.
Khirni (Manilkara hexandra) flowers between September and December and the fruit ripens between April and June. The tree is 3-12 m high and is usually found in forests.
It is a tropical tree and grows in China, Sri Lanka, Bangladesh, Myanmar Thailand, Cambodia and Vietnam. In India, it is found in Uttar Pradesh, Madhya Pradesh, Bihar, Chhattisgarh, Maharashtra and Tamil Nadu. But these days the fruit is not easily available in the market.
Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/food/kings-ate-this-fruit-to-restore-their-youth-61651
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
If global temperatures rise above 1.5° Celsius above pre-industrial levels the ideal temperature limit set by the Paris agreement global sea levels will rise by more than 40 centimeters (approximately 15.7 inches) by 2100 as per IPCC. Which of the following cities will be underwater/affected by rise in sea level if above assessment of IPCC comes to reality?
- Mexico City
- New York
- Miami
- Chittagong
Select the correct code:
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Match the following
Events Places
- Typhoon Mangkhut:: Philippine
- Hurricane Florence:: USA
- Tropical Storm Gordon:: Nordic Countries
Select the correct match from the code given below:
Correct
Typhoon Mangkhut, known in the Philippines as Typhoon Ompong, was an extremely powerful tropical cyclone that brought widespread damages to Guam, the Philippines and South China in mid- September 2018.
Hurricane Florence was a powerful and long-lived Cape Verde hurricane that caused catastrophic damage in the Carolinas in September 2018, primarily as a result of freshwater flooding
Tropical Storm Gordon was a tropical storm that caused moderate damage along the Gulf Coast of the United States in early September 2018.
Source:
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/natural-disasters/tropical-storm-florence-kills-at-least-13-disaster-declared-in-north-carolina-61639
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/natural-disasters/after-killing-59-in-philippines-typhoon-mangkhut-wreaks-havoc-in-hong-kong-china-61640
Incorrect
Typhoon Mangkhut, known in the Philippines as Typhoon Ompong, was an extremely powerful tropical cyclone that brought widespread damages to Guam, the Philippines and South China in mid- September 2018.
Hurricane Florence was a powerful and long-lived Cape Verde hurricane that caused catastrophic damage in the Carolinas in September 2018, primarily as a result of freshwater flooding
Tropical Storm Gordon was a tropical storm that caused moderate damage along the Gulf Coast of the United States in early September 2018.
Source:
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/natural-disasters/tropical-storm-florence-kills-at-least-13-disaster-declared-in-north-carolina-61639
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/natural-disasters/after-killing-59-in-philippines-typhoon-mangkhut-wreaks-havoc-in-hong-kong-china-61640
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs), a potent ozone depleting substance:
- Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are highly stable compounds.
- Chlorofluorocarbons are non-toxic, non-flammable and non-carcinogenic.
- They are used in the manufacture of aerosol sprays, blowing agents for foams and packing materials, as solvents, and as refrigerants.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
Correct
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are highly stable compounds that were used as propellents in spray cans and in refrigeration units. CFCs are manufactured under the trade name Freon.
Chloroflourocarbons were first created in 1928 as non-toxic, non-flamable refrigerants, and were first produced commercially in the 1930’s by DuPont.
Chlorofluorocarbons are non-toxic, non-flammable and non-carcinogenic.
They are used in the manufacture of aerosol sprays, blowing agents for foams and packing materials, as solvents, and as refrigerants.
Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/environment/how-chinese-foam-manufacturers-are-undermining-the-montreal-protocol-61629
Incorrect
Chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) are highly stable compounds that were used as propellents in spray cans and in refrigeration units. CFCs are manufactured under the trade name Freon.
Chloroflourocarbons were first created in 1928 as non-toxic, non-flamable refrigerants, and were first produced commercially in the 1930’s by DuPont.
Chlorofluorocarbons are non-toxic, non-flammable and non-carcinogenic.
They are used in the manufacture of aerosol sprays, blowing agents for foams and packing materials, as solvents, and as refrigerants.
Source: https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/environment/how-chinese-foam-manufacturers-are-undermining-the-montreal-protocol-61629