IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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Hello Friends,
The most beloved 60 Days for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019 has finally begun 🙂
Once again the time has come for the battle (Prelims). And who else than your best companion in the last preparatory phase for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019 i.e 60 days plan.
It does not matter how slowly you go as long as you do not stop.
Hope the message given above makes sense to you all.
The productive utilization of this programme demands consistency, honesty, faith and strong determination to be in the process of learning and unlearning. You might not be fully prepared to solve all the questions but the learning and unlearning through these questions will prepare you for the real battle on 2nd June 2019.
You have to unlearn your repetitive mistakes, gut feeling on which you mark doubtful questions. You have to learn new things and also those concepts that you were very sure of but somehow because of traps in the option, got it wrong. You have to learn ‘how to convert knowledge into marks’ (Because most of the times, after ending the exam, you regret making mistakes in known concepts).
Secondly, keep a long distance from following too many things at this point. It will always backfire. Once you are here, put complete faith and follow this initiative along with whatever you were doing. It is very important to consolidate your preparation with many revisions. Simply following many things will leave you in despair. You can cross check this with veterans.
Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity. Be wise!
Let us pledge to make it a big game changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days of this plan!
Importance of Self – Tracking: Learning from Last Year
Last year, aspirants used to type/post their answers in the comment box on a daily basis. There were huge participation and discussion below the test post. Putting answers in the comment box has been very effective to self-track yourself after updating the score. In the end, you can cross check your performance through Disqus profile.
It was highly effective in the last edition of 60 Days that propelled aspirants to monitor their performance and learn through discussion. Let you solve these questions with full honesty and write your result in the comment box. Interact with peers to know your mistakes.
The importance of this initiative stands time-bound and aggressive reverse engineering to learn the concepts. Many of you must be busy with your own strategy but let us tell you honestly that in the last few months, it is very important to revise and consolidate your learning. Just reading won’t suffice.
So, take out a few hours from your schedule and make it a revision exercise.
How can you make the best use of it?
Be honest to your effort and do not start competing with XYZ aspirants just for the sake of marks. It is more important for you to introspect and check your learning than focusing on others. Try to answer the questions in 25 minutes only.
Do not get into negative feeling that I don’t have enough knowledge to answer these questions. Feel like you are taking the real exam. What would be your response then?
The same will be replicated in the UPSC exam. Here, you get marks only and nothing else matters. So, make effort to know the answers to all questions. Do not cheat 😛
DETAILED MICRO ANALYSIS MATRIX SAMPLE– is given here. You can download this and do an assessment for yourself (the excel sheet must be modified as per this years planning. The provided excel sheet is only for reference). DOWNLOAD
- You can copy paste the same format/modify as per your need in Google Spreadsheet and update it on daily basis.
- Feedback talks about daily test results.
- Follow-up talks about daily target achieved from sources and the number of revisions to do/done and dates. Sources column is to ensure that aspirants do not run behind various sources and follow the same throughout.
Would like to end on this quote:
Either you run the day or the day runs you.
Are you ready? Let’s start!
Important Note
- Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂
- You can post your comments in the given format
- (1) Your Score
- (2) Matrix Meter
- (3) New Learning from the Test
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2019 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Consider the following statements with regard to Representation of People Act, 1951:
- It provides for the conduct of election of the Houses of Parliament and also State Legislatures.
- It also deals with qualification and disqualification of members of both houses of Parliament and also the state legislatures.
Choose the correct answer:
Correct
Article 324 to 329 of Part XV of the Constitution deals with the electoral system in our country. Constitution allows Parliament to make provisions in all matters relating to elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures. In exercise of this power, the Parliament has enacted laws like Representation of the People Act 1950 (RPA Act 1950), Representation of the People Act 1951 (RPA Act 1951) and Delimitation Commission Act of 1952.
Representation of Peoples Act 1951 provides for the actual conduct of elections of the Houses of Parliament and to the House or Houses of the Legislature of each State.
The act also deals with details like qualification and disqualification of members of both houses of Parliament (i.e, Loksabha and Rajyasabha) and the state legislatures (ie. State Legislative Assembly and State Legislative Council). Rules for the mode of conduct of elections is highlighted in detail.
Source:
- THE REPRESENTATION OF THE PEOPLE ACT, 1951 document
Incorrect
Article 324 to 329 of Part XV of the Constitution deals with the electoral system in our country. Constitution allows Parliament to make provisions in all matters relating to elections to the Parliament and State Legislatures. In exercise of this power, the Parliament has enacted laws like Representation of the People Act 1950 (RPA Act 1950), Representation of the People Act 1951 (RPA Act 1951) and Delimitation Commission Act of 1952.
Representation of Peoples Act 1951 provides for the actual conduct of elections of the Houses of Parliament and to the House or Houses of the Legislature of each State.
The act also deals with details like qualification and disqualification of members of both houses of Parliament (i.e, Loksabha and Rajyasabha) and the state legislatures (ie. State Legislative Assembly and State Legislative Council). Rules for the mode of conduct of elections is highlighted in detail.
Source:
- THE REPRESENTATION OF THE PEOPLE ACT, 1951 document
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Which among the following is/are mentioned in the Constitution of India?
- President being part of the Parliament
- Reservation of seats for Scheduled Caste and Scheduled Tribes
- System of communal representation
- Procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister
Choose the correct answer:
Correct
Article 79 in the Constitution of India provides that – There shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consist of the President and two Houses to be known respectively as the council of States and the House of the People.
Article 330 in the Constitution of India provides for the – Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the House of the People.
Constitution has abolished the old system of communal representation, that is, reservation of seats in the legislatures on the basis of religion. However, it provides for the temporary reservation of seats for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes to ensure adequate representation to them.
The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. Article 75 says only that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the president.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
Incorrect
Article 79 in the Constitution of India provides that – There shall be a Parliament for the Union which shall consist of the President and two Houses to be known respectively as the council of States and the House of the People.
Article 330 in the Constitution of India provides for the – Reservation of seats for Scheduled Castes and Scheduled Tribes in the House of the People.
Constitution has abolished the old system of communal representation, that is, reservation of seats in the legislatures on the basis of religion. However, it provides for the temporary reservation of seats for the scheduled castes and scheduled tribes to ensure adequate representation to them.
The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. Article 75 says only that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the president.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
The feature of starred question, unstarred question and short notice question is part of –
Correct
Question Hour
The first hour of every parliamentary sitting is slotted for this. During this time, the members ask questions and the ministers usually give answers. The questions are of three kinds, namely, starred, unstarred and short notice:
- A starred question (distinguished by an asterisk) requires an oral answer and hence supplementary questions can follow.
- An unstarred question, on the other hand, requires a written answer and hence, supplementary questions cannot follow.
- A short notice question is one that is asked by giving a notice of less than ten days. It is answered orally.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
Incorrect
Question Hour
The first hour of every parliamentary sitting is slotted for this. During this time, the members ask questions and the ministers usually give answers. The questions are of three kinds, namely, starred, unstarred and short notice:
- A starred question (distinguished by an asterisk) requires an oral answer and hence supplementary questions can follow.
- An unstarred question, on the other hand, requires a written answer and hence, supplementary questions cannot follow.
- A short notice question is one that is asked by giving a notice of less than ten days. It is answered orally.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Section 8 of Representation of Peoples Act 1951 is often in news. It deals with –
Correct
Section 8 deals with Disqualification of representatives on conviction for certain offences: A person convicted of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for varying terms under Sections 8 (1) (2) and (3) shall be disqualified from the date of conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years since his release. But Section 8 (4) of the RP Act gives protection to MPs and MLAs as they can continue in office even after conviction if an appeal is filed within three months.
Source:
- The Hindu
Incorrect
Section 8 deals with Disqualification of representatives on conviction for certain offences: A person convicted of any offence and sentenced to imprisonment for varying terms under Sections 8 (1) (2) and (3) shall be disqualified from the date of conviction and shall continue to be disqualified for a further period of six years since his release. But Section 8 (4) of the RP Act gives protection to MPs and MLAs as they can continue in office even after conviction if an appeal is filed within three months.
Source:
- The Hindu
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Which among the following motions is a motion that, by itself, has no meaning and cannot state the decision of the House without reference to the original motion or proceedings of the House?
Correct
Subsidiary Motion: It is a motion that, by itself, has no meaning and cannot state the decision of the House without reference to the original motion or proceedings of the House. It is divided into three sub-categories:
- Ancillary Motion: It is used as the regular way of proceeding with various kinds of business.
- Superseding Motion: It is moved in the course of debate on another issue and seeks to supersede that issue.
- Amendment: It seeks to modify or substitute only a part of the original motion.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
Incorrect
Subsidiary Motion: It is a motion that, by itself, has no meaning and cannot state the decision of the House without reference to the original motion or proceedings of the House. It is divided into three sub-categories:
- Ancillary Motion: It is used as the regular way of proceeding with various kinds of business.
- Superseding Motion: It is moved in the course of debate on another issue and seeks to supersede that issue.
- Amendment: It seeks to modify or substitute only a part of the original motion.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
What happens when an ordinary bill that was originated in the legislative council is sent to the legislative Assembly and rejected by the Assembly?
Correct
When a bill, which has originated in the legislative council and sent to the legislative assembly, is rejected by the latter, the bill ends and becomes dead.
The Constitution does not provide for the mechanism of joint sitting of two Houses of the state legislature to resolve a deadlock between them over the passage of a bill.
If a bill passed in Legislative Assembly is rejected in Legislative Council, then Legislative Assembly will have to repass it to override the council’s decision.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: State legislature)
Incorrect
When a bill, which has originated in the legislative council and sent to the legislative assembly, is rejected by the latter, the bill ends and becomes dead.
The Constitution does not provide for the mechanism of joint sitting of two Houses of the state legislature to resolve a deadlock between them over the passage of a bill.
If a bill passed in Legislative Assembly is rejected in Legislative Council, then Legislative Assembly will have to repass it to override the council’s decision.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: State legislature)
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Which among the following is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure
Correct
Zero hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. Except zero hour, all other options provided in the question are mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
Incorrect
Zero hour is not mentioned in the Rules of Procedure. Except zero hour, all other options provided in the question are mentioned in the Rules of Procedure.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Speaker of the Lok Sabha is the final interpreter of the provisions of –
- Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha
- Constitution of India within the House
- Parliamentary precedents within the House
Choose the correct answer:
Correct
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha derives his powers and duties from three sources, that is, the Constitution of India, the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha, and Parliamentary Conventions (residuary powers that are unwritten or unspecified in the Rules).
He is the final interpreter of the provisions of (a) the Constitution of India, (b) the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha, and (c) the parliamentary precedents, within the House.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
Incorrect
The Speaker of the Lok Sabha derives his powers and duties from three sources, that is, the Constitution of India, the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha, and Parliamentary Conventions (residuary powers that are unwritten or unspecified in the Rules).
He is the final interpreter of the provisions of (a) the Constitution of India, (b) the Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business of Lok Sabha, and (c) the parliamentary precedents, within the House.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Which among the following devices of the Parliamentary Proceedings can be moved by private members?
- Government Resolution
- Statutory Resolution
- Money Bill
- Amendment Bill
Choose the correct answer:
Correct
Government Resolution: It is one that is moved by a minister. It can be taken up any day from Monday to Thursday.
Statutory Resolution: It can be moved either by a private member or a minister. It is so called because it is always tabled in pursuance of a provision in the Constitution or an Act of Parliament.
Ordinary Bills and Amendment Bills can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member. However, Money Bill can be introduced only by a minister.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
Incorrect
Government Resolution: It is one that is moved by a minister. It can be taken up any day from Monday to Thursday.
Statutory Resolution: It can be moved either by a private member or a minister. It is so called because it is always tabled in pursuance of a provision in the Constitution or an Act of Parliament.
Ordinary Bills and Amendment Bills can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member. However, Money Bill can be introduced only by a minister.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Before introducing any bill, it is necessary for a member-in-charge of the Bill to ask for the leave of the House to introduce the Bill.
- If a bill is published in the Gazette before its introduction, leave of the House to introduce the bill is not necessary.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
An ordinary bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament. Such a bill can be introduced either by a minister or by any other member.
The member who wants to introduce the bill has to ask for the leave of the House. When the House grants leave to introduce the bill, the mover of the bill introduces it by reading its title and objectives. No discussion on the bill takes place at this stage.
Later, the bill is published in the Gazette of India. If a bill is published in the Gazette before its introduction, leave of the House to introduce the bill is not necessary.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
Incorrect
An ordinary bill can be introduced in either House of Parliament. Such a bill can be introduced either by a minister or by any other member.
The member who wants to introduce the bill has to ask for the leave of the House. When the House grants leave to introduce the bill, the mover of the bill introduces it by reading its title and objectives. No discussion on the bill takes place at this stage.
Later, the bill is published in the Gazette of India. If a bill is published in the Gazette before its introduction, leave of the House to introduce the bill is not necessary.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Consider the below statements:
- The Council of India Act, 1919 for the first time introduced bicameral legislature each with an elected majority in India.
- The Parliament of India was adopted when the Indian Constitution was promulgated in 1950.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Council of India Act, 1919 for the first time introduced bicameral legislature consisting of a council of states (the Upper House) and a legislative Assembly (the Lower House), each with an elected majority in India.
The representative institution was further expanded by the Act of 1935. The Act of 1935 introduced federal legislature consisting His Majesty, represented by Governor-General and two federal chambers known as the Council of States (the Upper House) and the House of Assembly.
The Parliament of India was adopted when the Indian Constitution was promulgated in 1950.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament and Historical Background)
- Basu, 2001, pp. 9-11.
Incorrect
The Council of India Act, 1919 for the first time introduced bicameral legislature consisting of a council of states (the Upper House) and a legislative Assembly (the Lower House), each with an elected majority in India.
The representative institution was further expanded by the Act of 1935. The Act of 1935 introduced federal legislature consisting His Majesty, represented by Governor-General and two federal chambers known as the Council of States (the Upper House) and the House of Assembly.
The Parliament of India was adopted when the Indian Constitution was promulgated in 1950.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament and Historical Background)
- Basu, 2001, pp. 9-11.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Consider the below statements with regard to Committees of Parliament:
- Standing committees are permanent and are constituted by the Speaker of Lok Sabha only.
- Cabinet Committees are extra-constitutional in nature and are nowhere mentioned in the Constitution.
Which of the statement given above is/are correct?
Correct
By their nature, parliamentary committees are of two kinds: ‘standing committees’ and ‘adhoc committees’.
- Standing committees are permanent and regular committees.
- They are constituted from time to time by the Chairman of Rajya Sabha or Speaker of Lok Sabha, as the case may be, in pursuance of the provisions of an Act of Parliament or Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.
- The works of these committees are of continuous nature.
- The Financial Committees, Advisory Committee, Committee to Scrutinize and Control, Committees for Welfare, etc. are few committees come under the category of Standing Committee.
Cabinet Committees
- The Cabinet Committee are organizations which are instrumental in reducing the workload of the Cabinet.
- They are formed under Transaction of Business Rules (TBR), 1961.
- These committees are extra-constitutional in nature and are nowhere mentioned in the Constitution.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
Incorrect
By their nature, parliamentary committees are of two kinds: ‘standing committees’ and ‘adhoc committees’.
- Standing committees are permanent and regular committees.
- They are constituted from time to time by the Chairman of Rajya Sabha or Speaker of Lok Sabha, as the case may be, in pursuance of the provisions of an Act of Parliament or Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business in Lok Sabha.
- The works of these committees are of continuous nature.
- The Financial Committees, Advisory Committee, Committee to Scrutinize and Control, Committees for Welfare, etc. are few committees come under the category of Standing Committee.
Cabinet Committees
- The Cabinet Committee are organizations which are instrumental in reducing the workload of the Cabinet.
- They are formed under Transaction of Business Rules (TBR), 1961.
- These committees are extra-constitutional in nature and are nowhere mentioned in the Constitution.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Which among the following statements is/are true?
- Our Constitution lays down that MLA or MP can be disqualified for holding an office of profit under government of India or state government.
- Under the Representation of People Act too, holding an office of profit is grounds for disqualification.
- The word ‘office’ has not been defined in the Constitution or the Representation of the People Act of 1951.
Choose the correct answer:
Correct
Basic disqualification criteria for an MP are laid down in Article 102 of the Constitution, and for an MLA in Article 191.
According to our Constitution, they can be disqualified for
- Holding an office of profit under government of India or state government
- Being of unsound mind
- Being an undischarged insolvent
- Not being an Indian citizen or for acquiring citizenship of another country
‘Office of profit’ is a position in the government which cannot be held by an MLA or an MP. The post can yield salaries, perquisites and other benefits.
The origin of this term can be found in the English Act of Settlement, 1701.
If an MLA or an MP holds a government office and receives benefits from it, then that office is termed as an “office of profit”.
A person will be disqualified if he holds an office of profit under the central or state government, other than an office declared not to disqualify its holder by a law passed by Parliament or state legislature.
The word ‘office’ has not been defined in the Constitution or the Representation of the People Act of 1951.
According to Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) of the Constitution, an MP or MLA is barred from holding an office of profit as it can put them in a position to gain a financial benefit. “A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament, (a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder,” says the law.
Under the Representation of People Act too, holding an office of profit is grounds for disqualification.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
- Representation of People Act Document
Incorrect
Basic disqualification criteria for an MP are laid down in Article 102 of the Constitution, and for an MLA in Article 191.
According to our Constitution, they can be disqualified for
- Holding an office of profit under government of India or state government
- Being of unsound mind
- Being an undischarged insolvent
- Not being an Indian citizen or for acquiring citizenship of another country
‘Office of profit’ is a position in the government which cannot be held by an MLA or an MP. The post can yield salaries, perquisites and other benefits.
The origin of this term can be found in the English Act of Settlement, 1701.
If an MLA or an MP holds a government office and receives benefits from it, then that office is termed as an “office of profit”.
A person will be disqualified if he holds an office of profit under the central or state government, other than an office declared not to disqualify its holder by a law passed by Parliament or state legislature.
The word ‘office’ has not been defined in the Constitution or the Representation of the People Act of 1951.
According to Articles 102(1)(a) and 191(1)(a) of the Constitution, an MP or MLA is barred from holding an office of profit as it can put them in a position to gain a financial benefit. “A person shall be disqualified for being chosen as, and for being, a member of either House of Parliament, (a) if he holds any office of profit under the Government of India or the Government of any State, other than an office declared by Parliament by law not to disqualify its holder,” says the law.
Under the Representation of People Act too, holding an office of profit is grounds for disqualification.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
- Representation of People Act Document
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Consider the following and select the incorrect statement:
Correct
Article 324 of the Constitution has made the following provisions with regard to the composition of election commission:
- The Election Commission shall consist of the chief election commissioner and such number of other election commissioners, if any, as the president may from time to time fix.
- The appointment of the chief election commissioner and other election commissioners shall be made by the president.
- When any other election commissioner is so appointed, the chief election commissioner shall act as the chairman of the election commission.
Do you know?
- Article 324 (5) of the Constitution safeguards the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) from arbitrary removal.
- The CEC can be removed from office only by the order of the President, just like a judge of the Supreme Court. However, the same constitutional provision is silent about the procedure for removal of the two Election Commissioners. It only provides that they cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the CEC.
The CEC and the Election Commissioners enjoy the same decision-making powers… However, Article 324(5) does not provide similar protection to the Election Commissioners. Hence, statement (c) is incorrect.
At the state level, the Election Commission is assisted by the chief electoral officer who is appointed by the chief election commissioner in consultation with the state government.
Chief Electoral Officer (CEO): The Chief Electoral Officer of a state/ Union Territory is authorized to supervise the election work in the state/Union Territory subject to the overall superintendence, direction and control of the Election Commission. The Election Commission of India nominates or designates an Officer of the Government of the state/Union Territory as the Chief Electoral Officer in consultation with that State Government/Union Territory Administration.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Elections)
Incorrect
Article 324 of the Constitution has made the following provisions with regard to the composition of election commission:
- The Election Commission shall consist of the chief election commissioner and such number of other election commissioners, if any, as the president may from time to time fix.
- The appointment of the chief election commissioner and other election commissioners shall be made by the president.
- When any other election commissioner is so appointed, the chief election commissioner shall act as the chairman of the election commission.
Do you know?
- Article 324 (5) of the Constitution safeguards the Chief Election Commissioner (CEC) from arbitrary removal.
- The CEC can be removed from office only by the order of the President, just like a judge of the Supreme Court. However, the same constitutional provision is silent about the procedure for removal of the two Election Commissioners. It only provides that they cannot be removed from office except on the recommendation of the CEC.
The CEC and the Election Commissioners enjoy the same decision-making powers… However, Article 324(5) does not provide similar protection to the Election Commissioners. Hence, statement (c) is incorrect.
At the state level, the Election Commission is assisted by the chief electoral officer who is appointed by the chief election commissioner in consultation with the state government.
Chief Electoral Officer (CEO): The Chief Electoral Officer of a state/ Union Territory is authorized to supervise the election work in the state/Union Territory subject to the overall superintendence, direction and control of the Election Commission. The Election Commission of India nominates or designates an Officer of the Government of the state/Union Territory as the Chief Electoral Officer in consultation with that State Government/Union Territory Administration.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Elections)
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Which Cabinet committee is often described as a ‘Super Cabinet’?
Correct
A number of cabinet committees are set by the Prime Minister of India as per the need and requirement. They are extra constitutional as they do not find mention in the constitution.
Cabinet committee on Political affairs (CCPA) is set up and chaired by the Prime minister and often described as ‘Super cabinet’ as it is the most important of all. Political affairs committee deals with all policy matters pertaining to domestic and foreign affairs.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
- The Hindu/Current Affairs
Incorrect
A number of cabinet committees are set by the Prime Minister of India as per the need and requirement. They are extra constitutional as they do not find mention in the constitution.
Cabinet committee on Political affairs (CCPA) is set up and chaired by the Prime minister and often described as ‘Super cabinet’ as it is the most important of all. Political affairs committee deals with all policy matters pertaining to domestic and foreign affairs.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
- The Hindu/Current Affairs
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Appointments Committee of the Cabinet is chaired by Parliamentary affairs Minister
- Discretionary grants are given to the States by the Union of India on the recommendation of Finance Commission of India
- The ministers are individually responsible to the Lok Sabha
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC)
- It is responsible for all appointments of higher ranks in the Central Secretariat, Public Enterprises, Public Enterprises and Financial Institutions.
- The committee is composed of the Prime Minister of India (who is the Chairman), the Minister of Home Affairs. Hence, statement (1) is wrong.
Statement 2 is also incorrect, because after the creation of NITI Aayog, the Ministry of Finance of India decides both planned and non-planned grants for States.
Ministers are individually responsible to the President i.e. they hold office during the pleasure of the President. Hence, statement 3 is wrong.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
Incorrect
Appointments Committee of the Cabinet (ACC)
- It is responsible for all appointments of higher ranks in the Central Secretariat, Public Enterprises, Public Enterprises and Financial Institutions.
- The committee is composed of the Prime Minister of India (who is the Chairman), the Minister of Home Affairs. Hence, statement (1) is wrong.
Statement 2 is also incorrect, because after the creation of NITI Aayog, the Ministry of Finance of India decides both planned and non-planned grants for States.
Ministers are individually responsible to the President i.e. they hold office during the pleasure of the President. Hence, statement 3 is wrong.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
The budget consists of two types of expenditure—the expenditure ‘charged’ upon the Consolidated Fund of India and the expenditure ‘made’ from the Consolidated Fund of India. Consider the following statements regarding the expenditure ‘charged’ upon Consolidated Fund of India:
- It is non-votable by the parliament and it can only be discussed.
- Emoluments and allowances of the President and other expenditure relating to his office are charged upon Consolidated Fund of India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
After the budget is presented to the house (parliament), the government needs its approval to draw even one rupee from the Consolidated Fund of India. This approval comes by voting, which means that the Budget proposals must be passed by the Parliament.
However, there are some charges which essentially have to be paid by the Government and for those charges no voting takes place. Thus, the expenditure embodied in the Budget Documents is of two types:
- The sums required for charged expenditures. These are non-votable.
- The sums required for other expenditures as mentioned in the Budget Documents. These are votable.
Charged Expenditures or Non-Votable Charges
Non-votable charges are called Charged Expenditures; and no voting takes place for the amount involved in these expenditures for their withdrawal from Consolidated Fund of India. This means that they have to be paid in any case, whether the budget is passed or not passed.
Following are the charged expenditures:
- Salary and Allowances of the President, Speaker / Deputy speaker of Lok Sabha, Chairman/ Deputy chairman of Rajya Sabha,
- Salaries and Allowances of Supreme Court judges, Pensions of Supreme Court as well as High Court Judges,
- Salaries, Allowances and Pensions of CAG, Lok Pal
- Debt charges of Government of India
The above expenditures cannot be voted because; these payments are deemed to be guaranteed by the state. Although voting does not take place on such charges, discussion can take place in any house of the parliament. The demand for grant for these charges is also made on recommendation of the president. (Article 113)
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
Incorrect
After the budget is presented to the house (parliament), the government needs its approval to draw even one rupee from the Consolidated Fund of India. This approval comes by voting, which means that the Budget proposals must be passed by the Parliament.
However, there are some charges which essentially have to be paid by the Government and for those charges no voting takes place. Thus, the expenditure embodied in the Budget Documents is of two types:
- The sums required for charged expenditures. These are non-votable.
- The sums required for other expenditures as mentioned in the Budget Documents. These are votable.
Charged Expenditures or Non-Votable Charges
Non-votable charges are called Charged Expenditures; and no voting takes place for the amount involved in these expenditures for their withdrawal from Consolidated Fund of India. This means that they have to be paid in any case, whether the budget is passed or not passed.
Following are the charged expenditures:
- Salary and Allowances of the President, Speaker / Deputy speaker of Lok Sabha, Chairman/ Deputy chairman of Rajya Sabha,
- Salaries and Allowances of Supreme Court judges, Pensions of Supreme Court as well as High Court Judges,
- Salaries, Allowances and Pensions of CAG, Lok Pal
- Debt charges of Government of India
The above expenditures cannot be voted because; these payments are deemed to be guaranteed by the state. Although voting does not take place on such charges, discussion can take place in any house of the parliament. The demand for grant for these charges is also made on recommendation of the president. (Article 113)
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
After the general discussion of Budget, a Vote on Account is passed. What is the purpose of ‘Vote on Account’?
Correct
An outgoing government presents only an interim Budget or seeks a vote on account. It leaves it to the next government to present the full Budget.
As per the Constitution, all the revenue received by the Union government and the loans raised by it are parked in the Consolidated Fund of India.
The constitution says that no money can be withdrawn by the government from the Consolidated Fund of India except under appropriation made by law. For that an appropriation bill is passed during the Budget process.
Since, the appropriation bill may take time to pass through the Parliament and become a law, the government would need permission to spend even a single penny from April 1 when the new financial year starts.
Vote on account is the permission to withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund of India in that period, usually two months. Hence, statement (a) is correct.
About Vote on Account
- Vote on account is the interim permission of the parliament to the government to spend money.
- It is just an interim permission to spend money as against a full Budget which is an elaborate financial statement of expenditure and receipts including changes in taxes and government policies.
- In the election year when the elections are scheduled a few months into the new financial year, the government prefers to seek a vote on account instead of presenting a full Budget because if the government changes after elections it is not fair to deny it the right to design its own Budget for the remaining part of the year.
- Though vote-on-account is a temporary measure, it does need the approval of Parliament and it is usually passed without much discussion.
- The vote on account typically does not seek funds for major projects or new initiatives. This usually awaits the presentation of the full Budget.
- One of the key features of a vote on account is that it usually does not contain any direct tax proposals that would impact people, as that requires amendments to the Finance Bill. (Therefore, any decrease/increase or exemption/inclusion related to income tax will be on hold if there’s a vote on account.)
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
- The Hindu/Current Affairs
Incorrect
An outgoing government presents only an interim Budget or seeks a vote on account. It leaves it to the next government to present the full Budget.
As per the Constitution, all the revenue received by the Union government and the loans raised by it are parked in the Consolidated Fund of India.
The constitution says that no money can be withdrawn by the government from the Consolidated Fund of India except under appropriation made by law. For that an appropriation bill is passed during the Budget process.
Since, the appropriation bill may take time to pass through the Parliament and become a law, the government would need permission to spend even a single penny from April 1 when the new financial year starts.
Vote on account is the permission to withdraw money from the Consolidated Fund of India in that period, usually two months. Hence, statement (a) is correct.
About Vote on Account
- Vote on account is the interim permission of the parliament to the government to spend money.
- It is just an interim permission to spend money as against a full Budget which is an elaborate financial statement of expenditure and receipts including changes in taxes and government policies.
- In the election year when the elections are scheduled a few months into the new financial year, the government prefers to seek a vote on account instead of presenting a full Budget because if the government changes after elections it is not fair to deny it the right to design its own Budget for the remaining part of the year.
- Though vote-on-account is a temporary measure, it does need the approval of Parliament and it is usually passed without much discussion.
- The vote on account typically does not seek funds for major projects or new initiatives. This usually awaits the presentation of the full Budget.
- One of the key features of a vote on account is that it usually does not contain any direct tax proposals that would impact people, as that requires amendments to the Finance Bill. (Therefore, any decrease/increase or exemption/inclusion related to income tax will be on hold if there’s a vote on account.)
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
- The Hindu/Current Affairs
-
Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Consider the following statements about Appropriation Bill and Finance bill
- Appropriation bill pertains to expenditure only; Finance bill pertains to both expenditure and revenue.
- Finance bill is a money bill but Appropriation bill is not.
Choose the correct codes from below options:
Correct
Finance Bill deals with imposition, abolition, remission, altercation or regulation of taxes proposed in the budget. It does not list the expenditure.
Appropriation bill sets aside the money for specific purposes, to avail full benefit of weighted deduction, credit on inputs/capital goods used for R&D outside the factory premises.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
Incorrect
Finance Bill deals with imposition, abolition, remission, altercation or regulation of taxes proposed in the budget. It does not list the expenditure.
Appropriation bill sets aside the money for specific purposes, to avail full benefit of weighted deduction, credit on inputs/capital goods used for R&D outside the factory premises.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Parliament)
-
Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Consider the below statements:
- EC is not concerned with the elections to panchayats and muncipalities in the states.
- Tenure of both the election commissioners and the regional commissioners is determined by the President.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Election Commission is an all-India body in the sense that it is common to both the Central government and the state governments. However, it must be noted here that the election commission is not concerned with the elections to panchayats and muncipalities in the states. For this, the Constitution of India provides for a separate State Election Commission.
The conditions of service and tenure of office of the election commissioners and the regional commissioners shall be determined by the president.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Elections)
Incorrect
Election Commission is an all-India body in the sense that it is common to both the Central government and the state governments. However, it must be noted here that the election commission is not concerned with the elections to panchayats and muncipalities in the states. For this, the Constitution of India provides for a separate State Election Commission.
The conditions of service and tenure of office of the election commissioners and the regional commissioners shall be determined by the president.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter: Elections)
-
Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR)’
- It is monitored by the United Nations Human Rights Committee
- It is legally binding
- India is yet to ratify the ICCPR
Select the correct statements
Correct
International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR)
- It was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1966 and came into force in 1976
- It is one of three documents that make up the International Bill of Rights, together with the Universal Declaration on Human Rights and the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR).
- The covenant commits its parties to respect the civil and political rights of individuals, including the right to life, freedom of religion, freedom of speech, freedom of assembly, electoral rights and rights to due process and a fair trial.
- It is monitored by the United Nations Human Rights Committee (a separate body to the United Nations Human Rights Council), which reviews regular reports of States parties on how the rights are being implemented.
- States must report initially one year after acceding to the Covenant and then whenever the Committee requests (usually every four years). The Committee normally meets in Geneva and normally holds three sessions per year.
- The ICCPR is a legally binding treaty. This means that states which ratify the treaty are legally bound by it, while states that do not are neither bound by the treaty obligations or entitled to invoke those obligations against other state parties.
- It is ratified by India
Human Rights Committee
- The Human Rights Committee was established to monitor the implementation of the ICCPR.
- It is composed of 18 independent experts with recognized competence in the field of human rights.
- Committee members are elected for a term of four years and must be from countries that have ratified the Covenant.
There are two Optional Protocols to the Covenant
- The First Optional Protocol establishes an individual complaints mechanism, allowing individuals to complain to the Human Rights Committee about violations of the Covenant. This has led to the creation of a complex jurisprudence on the interpretation and implementation of the Covenant.
- The Second Optional Protocol abolishes the death penalty; however, countries were permitted to make a reservation allowing for use of death penalty for the most serious crimes of a military nature, committed during wartime.
THINK!
- International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR)
Incorrect
International Covenant on Civil and Political Rights (ICCPR)
- It was adopted by the United Nations General Assembly in 1966 and came into force in 1976
- It is one of three documents that make up the International Bill of Rights, together with the Universal Declaration on Human Rights and the International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR).
- The covenant commits its parties to respect the civil and political rights of individuals, including the right to life, freedom of religion, freedom of speech, freedom of assembly, electoral rights and rights to due process and a fair trial.
- It is monitored by the United Nations Human Rights Committee (a separate body to the United Nations Human Rights Council), which reviews regular reports of States parties on how the rights are being implemented.
- States must report initially one year after acceding to the Covenant and then whenever the Committee requests (usually every four years). The Committee normally meets in Geneva and normally holds three sessions per year.
- The ICCPR is a legally binding treaty. This means that states which ratify the treaty are legally bound by it, while states that do not are neither bound by the treaty obligations or entitled to invoke those obligations against other state parties.
- It is ratified by India
Human Rights Committee
- The Human Rights Committee was established to monitor the implementation of the ICCPR.
- It is composed of 18 independent experts with recognized competence in the field of human rights.
- Committee members are elected for a term of four years and must be from countries that have ratified the Covenant.
There are two Optional Protocols to the Covenant
- The First Optional Protocol establishes an individual complaints mechanism, allowing individuals to complain to the Human Rights Committee about violations of the Covenant. This has led to the creation of a complex jurisprudence on the interpretation and implementation of the Covenant.
- The Second Optional Protocol abolishes the death penalty; however, countries were permitted to make a reservation allowing for use of death penalty for the most serious crimes of a military nature, committed during wartime.
THINK!
- International Covenant on Economic, Social and Cultural Rights (ICESCR)
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Consider the following terms
- Industrial Security Annex (ISA)
- General Security Of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA)
- General Data Protection Regulation (GDPR)
Which of the above terms is/are associated with India-US partnership?
Correct
Industrial Security Annex (ISA) would allow Indian private sector to collaborate with the U.S. defence industry
General Security Of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA)
- It allows sharing of classified information from the U.S. government and American companies with the Indian government and defence Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) but not with Indian private companies.
MoU was signed between the U.S. Defence Innovation Unit (DIU) and the Indian Defence Innovation Organization – Innovation for Defence Excellence (DIO-iDEX), which will look into joint projects for co-production and co-development projects through the Defence Technology and Trade Initiative (DTTI).
The General Data Protection Regulation 2016/679 is a regulation in EU law on data protection and privacy for all individuals within the European Union and the European Economic Area.
Incorrect
Industrial Security Annex (ISA) would allow Indian private sector to collaborate with the U.S. defence industry
General Security Of Military Information Agreement (GSOMIA)
- It allows sharing of classified information from the U.S. government and American companies with the Indian government and defence Public Sector Undertakings (PSUs) but not with Indian private companies.
MoU was signed between the U.S. Defence Innovation Unit (DIU) and the Indian Defence Innovation Organization – Innovation for Defence Excellence (DIO-iDEX), which will look into joint projects for co-production and co-development projects through the Defence Technology and Trade Initiative (DTTI).
The General Data Protection Regulation 2016/679 is a regulation in EU law on data protection and privacy for all individuals within the European Union and the European Economic Area.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Chemical Weapons Convention Act, 2000’
- It empowers the Centre to set up a National Authority which can close down facilities which violate the Convention on the ‘Prohibition of the Development, Production, Stockpiling and use of Chemical Weapons’
- The Act disallows any person from transferring or receiving specified toxic chemicals from a non-state party
Select the correct statements
Correct
Chemical Weapons Convention Act, 2000
- It was enacted to give effect to the Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, Production, Stockpiling and use of Chemical Weapons and on their Destruction signed by the government in 1993.
- It defines chemical weapons and empowers the Centre to set up a National Authority to act as the “national focal point” for effective liaison with organisations and other state parties on matters relating to the Convention and for fulfilling the obligations of the country.
- The Authority’s functions include regulation and monitoring the development, production, processing, consumption, transfer or use of toxic chemicals or precursors as specified in the Convention, among others.
- The Authority is also empowered to issue directions and even close down facilities which violate the Convention. It can liaise with other countries to seek or give assistance and protection against the use of chemical weapons.
- It defines chemical weapons as toxic chemicals, including munitions and devices, specifically designed to cause death or other harm. The definition includes in its ambit “any equipment” specifically designed for employing chemical weapons.
- It gives full power of inspection of any person who is engaged in the production, processing, acquisition, consumption, transfer, import, export or use of any toxic chemical or discrete organic chemical.
- Inspections extend to any place where any chemical weapon, old chemical weapon, or abandoned chemical weapon is located, or where a chemical weapon production facility exists.
- It allows inspections teams to conduct “challenge inspections” of chemical facilities in the company of an Observer. An enforcement officer under the Act shall also accompany the team.
- It was amended to give the Centre power to appoint any of its own officers, other than those of the National Authority, as enforcement officers.
- It contains provisions for restriction on transfer of any toxic chemical or precursor. It provides that no person shall, three years after April 29, 1997, transfer to or receive from any person, who is not a citizen of a state party, toxic chemicals.
- This has been amended to provide that no person shall transfer to, or receive from, a state which is not a party to the Convention, any toxic chemicals that are specified in the Act.
Incorrect
Chemical Weapons Convention Act, 2000
- It was enacted to give effect to the Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, Production, Stockpiling and use of Chemical Weapons and on their Destruction signed by the government in 1993.
- It defines chemical weapons and empowers the Centre to set up a National Authority to act as the “national focal point” for effective liaison with organisations and other state parties on matters relating to the Convention and for fulfilling the obligations of the country.
- The Authority’s functions include regulation and monitoring the development, production, processing, consumption, transfer or use of toxic chemicals or precursors as specified in the Convention, among others.
- The Authority is also empowered to issue directions and even close down facilities which violate the Convention. It can liaise with other countries to seek or give assistance and protection against the use of chemical weapons.
- It defines chemical weapons as toxic chemicals, including munitions and devices, specifically designed to cause death or other harm. The definition includes in its ambit “any equipment” specifically designed for employing chemical weapons.
- It gives full power of inspection of any person who is engaged in the production, processing, acquisition, consumption, transfer, import, export or use of any toxic chemical or discrete organic chemical.
- Inspections extend to any place where any chemical weapon, old chemical weapon, or abandoned chemical weapon is located, or where a chemical weapon production facility exists.
- It allows inspections teams to conduct “challenge inspections” of chemical facilities in the company of an Observer. An enforcement officer under the Act shall also accompany the team.
- It was amended to give the Centre power to appoint any of its own officers, other than those of the National Authority, as enforcement officers.
- It contains provisions for restriction on transfer of any toxic chemical or precursor. It provides that no person shall, three years after April 29, 1997, transfer to or receive from any person, who is not a citizen of a state party, toxic chemicals.
- This has been amended to provide that no person shall transfer to, or receive from, a state which is not a party to the Convention, any toxic chemicals that are specified in the Act.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Which of the following is/are correctly matched?
Community State
- Woj Chhattisgarh
- Hatti Jharkhand
- Kapu Andhra Pradesh
Select the correct code:
Correct
Woj – Telangana
Hatti – Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand
Kapu – Andhra Pradesh
Incorrect
Woj – Telangana
Hatti – Himachal Pradesh and Uttarakhand
Kapu – Andhra Pradesh
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Total Expense Ratio (TER)’
- It is the cost of running and managing a mutual fund scheme.
- In India, the maximum TER that a fund can charge its investors is prescribed by the RBI.
Select the correct statements
Correct
Total Expense Ratio (TER)
News: Reduction in MF expense ratio will benefit investors
About
- It is the share of the fund that is used to meet the administrative, management and other operating expenses of the scheme
- The reduction in the TER would not only lead to greater financial inclusion and helping in attracting more investors, but also would lead to better utilisation of scarce capital resources
What is total expense ratio and why is it important for investing in mutual funds?
- Mutual funds are investments where an investor entrusts his/her money with an investment manager (of an asset management company) to manage the money smartly and efficiently.
- This money management comes at a cost, which is usually charged as a percentage of the investment.
- SEBI has laid down rules on how much an asset management company can charge an investor to manage their funds.
- For an investor this is important because it is a charge (called total expense ratio or TER in short) levied on their investment, and the money they get back from their investment is reduced by this figure.
- For example, if a fund charges 2% as the TER, and the fund produces a gross profit (return) of 15% in a given year, the investor would get 13% – which is the gross profit minus the TER – in their hands.
- So, for an investor, TER is an important number to focus on since it has a direct impact on their returns. However, it is not the only number to look at and investors should evaluate funds based on various parameters such as consistency of performance and risk levels.
What are the changes made by SEBI now to TER?
- SEBI has, across the board, lowered the. The reduction is higher for larger funds and lower for smaller funds — larger and smaller being a measure of how much money a fund manages.
- SEBI has capped the maximum TER at 2.25% for open-ended equity schemes
Incorrect
Total Expense Ratio (TER)
News: Reduction in MF expense ratio will benefit investors
About
- It is the share of the fund that is used to meet the administrative, management and other operating expenses of the scheme
- The reduction in the TER would not only lead to greater financial inclusion and helping in attracting more investors, but also would lead to better utilisation of scarce capital resources
What is total expense ratio and why is it important for investing in mutual funds?
- Mutual funds are investments where an investor entrusts his/her money with an investment manager (of an asset management company) to manage the money smartly and efficiently.
- This money management comes at a cost, which is usually charged as a percentage of the investment.
- SEBI has laid down rules on how much an asset management company can charge an investor to manage their funds.
- For an investor this is important because it is a charge (called total expense ratio or TER in short) levied on their investment, and the money they get back from their investment is reduced by this figure.
- For example, if a fund charges 2% as the TER, and the fund produces a gross profit (return) of 15% in a given year, the investor would get 13% – which is the gross profit minus the TER – in their hands.
- So, for an investor, TER is an important number to focus on since it has a direct impact on their returns. However, it is not the only number to look at and investors should evaluate funds based on various parameters such as consistency of performance and risk levels.
What are the changes made by SEBI now to TER?
- SEBI has, across the board, lowered the. The reduction is higher for larger funds and lower for smaller funds — larger and smaller being a measure of how much money a fund manages.
- SEBI has capped the maximum TER at 2.25% for open-ended equity schemes
-
Question 26 of 30
26. Question
A recently released report by the National Centre for Coastal Research (NCCR), under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, reported the loss caused by erosion of coastal states. Which state has recorded maximum erosion?
Correct
It’s a land-starved State, and between 1990 and 2016, West Bengal lost more to erosion. A report by the National Centre for Coastal Research (NCCR), under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, released recently said West Bengal recorded the maximum erosion of 63%, followed by Puducherry 57%, Kerala 45%, and Tamil Nadu 41%.
West Bengal, regularly hit by tides, tropical cyclones and storm surges, has suffered 63% erosion. Between 1990 and 2016, West Bengal lost 99 sq km land due to coastal erosion. The land gain in the State, due to accretion has been only 16 sq km. Sagar, the biggest island of the Sunderbans archipelago, which is home to almost 2 lakh people, is facing severe erosion on its western and south eastern parts. Islands like Ghoramara and Mousuni are also facing erosion. The same trend has been observed at Jambudweep Island and Henry Island in the Sunderbans.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/west-bengal-where-erosion-leads-to-land-loss/article24842375.ece
Incorrect
It’s a land-starved State, and between 1990 and 2016, West Bengal lost more to erosion. A report by the National Centre for Coastal Research (NCCR), under the Ministry of Earth Sciences, released recently said West Bengal recorded the maximum erosion of 63%, followed by Puducherry 57%, Kerala 45%, and Tamil Nadu 41%.
West Bengal, regularly hit by tides, tropical cyclones and storm surges, has suffered 63% erosion. Between 1990 and 2016, West Bengal lost 99 sq km land due to coastal erosion. The land gain in the State, due to accretion has been only 16 sq km. Sagar, the biggest island of the Sunderbans archipelago, which is home to almost 2 lakh people, is facing severe erosion on its western and south eastern parts. Islands like Ghoramara and Mousuni are also facing erosion. The same trend has been observed at Jambudweep Island and Henry Island in the Sunderbans.
https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/west-bengal-where-erosion-leads-to-land-loss/article24842375.ece
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Recently a strong typhoon named ‘Trami’ was in news. It made headlines after hitting which of the following country?
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
2018 Global Multidimensional Poverty Index is released by:
Correct
India has made momentous progress in reducing multidimensional poverty, according to estimates from the 2018 global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) released by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI).
http://www.in.undp.org/content/india/en/home/sustainable-development/successstories/MultiDimesnionalPovertyIndex.html
Incorrect
India has made momentous progress in reducing multidimensional poverty, according to estimates from the 2018 global Multidimensional Poverty Index (MPI) released by the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the Oxford Poverty and Human Development Initiative (OPHI).
http://www.in.undp.org/content/india/en/home/sustainable-development/successstories/MultiDimesnionalPovertyIndex.html
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Ayodhya/Ajodhya Hills was in news because of protest by Tribals in connection to dams being built in the region. It is part of which of the following states?
Correct
It is a small plateau with hilly surroundings located in the Purulia district of the state West Bengal, India.
It is the easternmost part of the Chhotanagpur Plateau and extended part of Eastern Ghats range. Highest peak of Ajodhya Hills is Chamtuburu.
In 2006-07, Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA) invested in building dams in Ayodhya hills under ‘Purulia Pump Storage Plant’ (PPSP). For the pumped storage plant two dams, both in upstream and downstream, need to be built. When water will flow downstream, it will be stored for generating electricity. During dry spell, water from the dam downstream will be pumped back into the upstream dam. While water is meant for Ranchi and Arambagh, the local tribals, who are hit by water scarcity, do not stand to benefit much from this project.
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/environment/tribals-voice-protest-against-power-project-in-west-bengal-s-ayodhya-hills-61666
Incorrect
It is a small plateau with hilly surroundings located in the Purulia district of the state West Bengal, India.
It is the easternmost part of the Chhotanagpur Plateau and extended part of Eastern Ghats range. Highest peak of Ajodhya Hills is Chamtuburu.
In 2006-07, Japan International Cooperation Agency (JICA) invested in building dams in Ayodhya hills under ‘Purulia Pump Storage Plant’ (PPSP). For the pumped storage plant two dams, both in upstream and downstream, need to be built. When water will flow downstream, it will be stored for generating electricity. During dry spell, water from the dam downstream will be pumped back into the upstream dam. While water is meant for Ranchi and Arambagh, the local tribals, who are hit by water scarcity, do not stand to benefit much from this project.
https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/environment/tribals-voice-protest-against-power-project-in-west-bengal-s-ayodhya-hills-61666
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Recently a place called ‘Pakyong’ was in news. Which state of India it belongs to?
Correct
Pakyong is a town in the East Sikkim district of the Indian state of Sikkim located in the foothills of the Himalayas.
Sikkim’s first Airport- in Pakyong inaugurated by PM.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/what-you-need-to-know-about-pakyong-airport-in-sikkim-indias-100th-airport/article25026303.ece
Incorrect
Pakyong is a town in the East Sikkim district of the Indian state of Sikkim located in the foothills of the Himalayas.
Sikkim’s first Airport- in Pakyong inaugurated by PM.
https://www.thehindu.com/news/national/other-states/what-you-need-to-know-about-pakyong-airport-in-sikkim-indias-100th-airport/article25026303.ece