IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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PRELIMS CRACKATHON : UPSC Prelims 2019 Discussion Videos from IASbaba Topper’s
Importance of Self – Tracking: Learning from Last Year
Last year, aspirants used to type/post their answers in the comment box on a daily basis. There were huge participation and discussion below the test post. Putting answers in the comment box has been very effective to self-track yourself after updating the score. In the end, you can cross check your performance through Disqus profile.
It was highly effective in the last edition of 60 Days that propelled aspirants to monitor their performance and learn through discussion. Let you solve these questions with full honesty and write your result in the comment box. Interact with peers to know your mistakes.
The importance of this initiative stands time-bound and aggressive reverse engineering to learn the concepts. Many of you must be busy with your own strategy but let us tell you honestly that in the last few months, it is very important to revise and consolidate your learning. Just reading won’t suffice.
So, take out a few hours from your schedule and make it a revision exercise.
How can you make the best use of it?
Be honest to your effort and do not start competing with XYZ aspirants just for the sake of marks. It is more important for you to introspect and check your learning than focusing on others. Try to answer the questions in 25 minutes only.
Do not get into negative feeling that I don’t have enough knowledge to answer these questions. Feel like you are taking the real exam. What would be your response then?
The same will be replicated in the UPSC exam. Here, you get marks only and nothing else matters. So, make effort to know the answers to all questions. Do not cheat 😛
DETAILED MICRO ANALYSIS MATRIX SAMPLE– is given here. You can download this and do an assessment for yourself (the excel sheet must be modified as per this years planning. The provided excel sheet is only for reference). DOWNLOAD
- You can copy paste the same format/modify as per your need in Google Spreadsheet and update it on daily basis.
- Feedback talks about daily test results.
- Follow-up talks about daily target achieved from sources and the number of revisions to do/done and dates. Sources column is to ensure that aspirants do not run behind various sources and follow the same throughout.
Would like to end on this quote:
Either you run the day or the day runs you.
Are you ready? Let’s start!
Important Note
- Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂
- You can post your comments in the given format
- (1) Your Score
- (2) Matrix Meter
- (3) New Learning from the Test
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2019 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding ‘White Holes’?
- They are a region of spacetime which cannot be entered from the outside, although matter and light can escape from it.
- They are only hypothetical reverse of Black holes and as of now there is no conclusive report of finding one in space.
Select the code from following:
Correct
In general relativity, a white hole is a hypothetical region of spacetime which cannot be entered from the outside, although matter and light can escape from it. In this sense, it is the reverse of a black hole, which can only be entered from the outside and from which matter and light cannot escape. White holes appear in the theory of eternal black holes. In addition to a black hole region in the future, such a solution of the Einstein field equations has a white hole region in its past. However, this region does not exist for black holes that have formed through gravitational collapse, nor are there any known physical processes through which a white hole could be formed. Although information and evidence regarding white holes remains inconclusive, the 2006 GRB 060614 has been proposed as the first documented occurrence of a white hole.
Incorrect
In general relativity, a white hole is a hypothetical region of spacetime which cannot be entered from the outside, although matter and light can escape from it. In this sense, it is the reverse of a black hole, which can only be entered from the outside and from which matter and light cannot escape. White holes appear in the theory of eternal black holes. In addition to a black hole region in the future, such a solution of the Einstein field equations has a white hole region in its past. However, this region does not exist for black holes that have formed through gravitational collapse, nor are there any known physical processes through which a white hole could be formed. Although information and evidence regarding white holes remains inconclusive, the 2006 GRB 060614 has been proposed as the first documented occurrence of a white hole.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
One of the cure of loss of power is seen in superconductivity. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Superconductivity?
- It is achieved when electric resistance in a medium becomes zero.
- A superconductor can carry a current indefinitely without losing any energy.
- 10 times more magnetic field is generated in a superconductor as compared to a normal conductor.
Select the code from following:
Correct
Superconductors are materials that conduct electricity with no resistance. This means that, unlike the more familiar conductors such as copper or steel, a superconductor can carry a current indefinitely without losing any energy. They also have several other very important properties, such as the fact that no magnetic field can exist within a superconductor.
Superconductors already have drastically changed the world of medicine with the advent of MRI machines, which have meant a reduction in exploratory surgery. Power utilities, electronics companies, the military, transportation, and theoretical physics have all benefited strongly from the discovery of these materials.
Incorrect
Superconductors are materials that conduct electricity with no resistance. This means that, unlike the more familiar conductors such as copper or steel, a superconductor can carry a current indefinitely without losing any energy. They also have several other very important properties, such as the fact that no magnetic field can exist within a superconductor.
Superconductors already have drastically changed the world of medicine with the advent of MRI machines, which have meant a reduction in exploratory surgery. Power utilities, electronics companies, the military, transportation, and theoretical physics have all benefited strongly from the discovery of these materials.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Which of the following statements correctly defines superfluidity?
Correct
Superfluidity is the characteristic property of a fluid with zero viscosity which therefore flows without loss of kinetic energy. When stirred, a superfluid forms cellular vortices that continue to rotate indefinitely. Superfluidity occurs in two isotopes of helium (helium-3 and helium-4) when they are liquified by cooling to cryogenic temperatures. It is also a property of various other exotic states of matter theorized to exist in astrophysics, high-energy physics, and theories of quantum gravity.
Incorrect
Superfluidity is the characteristic property of a fluid with zero viscosity which therefore flows without loss of kinetic energy. When stirred, a superfluid forms cellular vortices that continue to rotate indefinitely. Superfluidity occurs in two isotopes of helium (helium-3 and helium-4) when they are liquified by cooling to cryogenic temperatures. It is also a property of various other exotic states of matter theorized to exist in astrophysics, high-energy physics, and theories of quantum gravity.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Dark matter is a hypothetical form of matter that is thought to account for approximately 85% of the matter in the universe and about a quarter of its total energy density. Consider the following statements regarding this:
- It does not appear to interact with observable electromagnetic radiation, such as light, and is thus invisible to the entire electromagnetic spectrum.
- Dark energy is believed to be responsible for expansion of Universe.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Dark matter is a hypothetical form of matter that is thought to account for approximately 85% of the matter in the universe and about a quarter of its total energy density. The majority of dark matter is thought to be non-baryonic in nature, possibly being composed of some as-yet undiscovered subatomic particles. ts presence is implied in a variety of astrophysical observations, including gravitational effects that cannot be explained by accepted theories of gravity unless more matter is present than can be seen. For this reason, most experts think dark matter to be ubiquitous in the universe and to have had a strong influence on its structure and evolution. Dark matter is called dark because it does not appear to interact with observable electromagnetic radiation, such as light, and is thus invisible to the entire electromagnetic spectrum, making it extremely difficult to detect using usual astronomical equipment.
Dark Energy:
It is a theoretical form of energy postulated to act in opposition to gravity and to occupy the entire universe, accounting for most of the energy in it and causing its expansion to accelerate.
Incorrect
Dark matter is a hypothetical form of matter that is thought to account for approximately 85% of the matter in the universe and about a quarter of its total energy density. The majority of dark matter is thought to be non-baryonic in nature, possibly being composed of some as-yet undiscovered subatomic particles. ts presence is implied in a variety of astrophysical observations, including gravitational effects that cannot be explained by accepted theories of gravity unless more matter is present than can be seen. For this reason, most experts think dark matter to be ubiquitous in the universe and to have had a strong influence on its structure and evolution. Dark matter is called dark because it does not appear to interact with observable electromagnetic radiation, such as light, and is thus invisible to the entire electromagnetic spectrum, making it extremely difficult to detect using usual astronomical equipment.
Dark Energy:
It is a theoretical form of energy postulated to act in opposition to gravity and to occupy the entire universe, accounting for most of the energy in it and causing its expansion to accelerate.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
One of the most fundamental research going on at CERN in France is that on Anti – Matter. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Anti – Matter?
- Antimatter particles share the same mass as their matter counterparts, but qualities such as electric charge are opposite.
- A collision between any particle and its anti-particle partner leads to their mutual annihilation releasing energy.
Select the code from following:
Correct
In modern physics, antimatter is defined as a material composed of the antiparticles (or “partners”) of the corresponding particles of ordinary matter. Minuscule numbers of antiparticles are generated daily at particle accelerators – total production has been only a few nanograms – and in natural processes like cosmic ray collisions and some types of radioactive decay, but only a tiny fraction of these have successfully been bound together in experiments to form anti-atoms. No macroscopic amount of antimatter has ever been assembled due to the extreme cost and difficulty of production and handling.
In theory, a particle and its anti-particle (for example, proton and antiproton) have the same mass, but opposite electric charge and other differences in quantum numbers. For example, a proton has positive charge while an antiproton has negative charge.
A collision between any particle and its anti-particle partner leads to their mutual annihilation, giving rise to various proportions of intense photons (gamma rays), neutrinos, and sometimes less-massive particle-antiparticle pairs. Annihilation usually results in a release of energy that becomes available for heat or work. The amount of the released energy is usually proportional to the total mass of the collided matter and antimatter, in accordance with the mass–energy equivalence equation, E=mc2.
Incorrect
In modern physics, antimatter is defined as a material composed of the antiparticles (or “partners”) of the corresponding particles of ordinary matter. Minuscule numbers of antiparticles are generated daily at particle accelerators – total production has been only a few nanograms – and in natural processes like cosmic ray collisions and some types of radioactive decay, but only a tiny fraction of these have successfully been bound together in experiments to form anti-atoms. No macroscopic amount of antimatter has ever been assembled due to the extreme cost and difficulty of production and handling.
In theory, a particle and its anti-particle (for example, proton and antiproton) have the same mass, but opposite electric charge and other differences in quantum numbers. For example, a proton has positive charge while an antiproton has negative charge.
A collision between any particle and its anti-particle partner leads to their mutual annihilation, giving rise to various proportions of intense photons (gamma rays), neutrinos, and sometimes less-massive particle-antiparticle pairs. Annihilation usually results in a release of energy that becomes available for heat or work. The amount of the released energy is usually proportional to the total mass of the collided matter and antimatter, in accordance with the mass–energy equivalence equation, E=mc2.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Presence of hypothetical sub atomic particle Higgs Boson was confirmed by CERN in 2012 in its experiment ATLAS. Which of the following physical attributes are believed to be imparted by Higgs boson to matter?
Correct
Higgs Boson, also known as the God particle, is believed to impart mass to matter.
It is worth noting that the Higgs field does not “create” mass out of nothing (which would violate the law of conservation of energy), nor is the Higgs field responsible for the mass of all particles. For example, approximately 99% of the mass of baryons (composite particles such as the proton and neutron), is due instead to quantum chromodynamic binding energy, which is the sum of the kinetic energies of quarks and the energies of the mass less gluons mediating the strong interaction inside the baryons. In Higgs-based theories, the property of “mass” is a manifestation of potential energy transferred to fundamental particles when they interact (“couple”) with the Higgs field, which had contained that mass in the form of energy.
Incorrect
Higgs Boson, also known as the God particle, is believed to impart mass to matter.
It is worth noting that the Higgs field does not “create” mass out of nothing (which would violate the law of conservation of energy), nor is the Higgs field responsible for the mass of all particles. For example, approximately 99% of the mass of baryons (composite particles such as the proton and neutron), is due instead to quantum chromodynamic binding energy, which is the sum of the kinetic energies of quarks and the energies of the mass less gluons mediating the strong interaction inside the baryons. In Higgs-based theories, the property of “mass” is a manifestation of potential energy transferred to fundamental particles when they interact (“couple”) with the Higgs field, which had contained that mass in the form of energy.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
A light year is unit of –
Correct
A unit of astronomical distance equivalent to the distance that light travels in one year, which is 9.4607 × 1012 km (nearly 6 million million miles).
Incorrect
A unit of astronomical distance equivalent to the distance that light travels in one year, which is 9.4607 × 1012 km (nearly 6 million million miles).
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
In a pressure cooker, the food is cooked early. The reason behind this is?
Correct
The cooker works by trapping the steam produced from boiling the cooking liquid inside the vessel. This causes internal pressure and temperature to rise quickly. After use, the steam is slowly released so that the vessel can be opened safely.
Incorrect
The cooker works by trapping the steam produced from boiling the cooking liquid inside the vessel. This causes internal pressure and temperature to rise quickly. After use, the steam is slowly released so that the vessel can be opened safely.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Nobel prize for Physics in 2018 was given for the invention of optical tweezers. Which of the following statements regarding this is/are correct?
- It can grab particles, atoms, viruses and other living cells with their laser beam fingers.
- The radiation pressure of light is used to move physical objects.
Select the code from following:
Correct
The inventions being honoured this year have revolutionised laser physics. Extremely small objects and incredibly rapid processes are now being seen in a new light. Advanced precision instruments are opening up unexplored areas of research and a multitude of industrial and medical applications.
Arthur Ashkin invented optical tweezers that grab particles, atoms, viruses and other living cells with their laser beam fingers. This new tool allowed Ashkin to realise an old dream of science fiction – using the radiation pressure of light to move physical objects. He succeeded in getting laser light to push small particles towards the centre of the beam and to hold them there. Optical tweezers had been invented.
A major breakthrough came in 1987, when Ashkin used the tweezers to capture living bacteria without harming them. He immediately began studying biological systems and optical tweezers are now widely used to investigate the machinery of life.
Gérard Mourou and Donna Strickland paved the way towards the shortest and most intense laser pulses ever created by mankind. Their revolutionary article was published in 1985 and was the foundation of Strickland’s doctoral thesis.
Using an ingenious approach, they succeeded in creating ultrashort high-intensity laser pulses without destroying the amplifying material. First they stretched the laser pulses in time to reduce their peak power, then amplified them, and finally compressed them. If a pulse is compressed in time and becomes shorter, then more light is packed together in the same tiny space – the intensity of the pulse increases dramatically.
Strickland and Mourou’s newly invented technique, called chirped pulse amplification, CPA, soon became standard for subsequent high-intensity lasers. Its uses include the millions of corrective eye surgeries that are conducted every year using the sharpest of laser beams.
Incorrect
The inventions being honoured this year have revolutionised laser physics. Extremely small objects and incredibly rapid processes are now being seen in a new light. Advanced precision instruments are opening up unexplored areas of research and a multitude of industrial and medical applications.
Arthur Ashkin invented optical tweezers that grab particles, atoms, viruses and other living cells with their laser beam fingers. This new tool allowed Ashkin to realise an old dream of science fiction – using the radiation pressure of light to move physical objects. He succeeded in getting laser light to push small particles towards the centre of the beam and to hold them there. Optical tweezers had been invented.
A major breakthrough came in 1987, when Ashkin used the tweezers to capture living bacteria without harming them. He immediately began studying biological systems and optical tweezers are now widely used to investigate the machinery of life.
Gérard Mourou and Donna Strickland paved the way towards the shortest and most intense laser pulses ever created by mankind. Their revolutionary article was published in 1985 and was the foundation of Strickland’s doctoral thesis.
Using an ingenious approach, they succeeded in creating ultrashort high-intensity laser pulses without destroying the amplifying material. First they stretched the laser pulses in time to reduce their peak power, then amplified them, and finally compressed them. If a pulse is compressed in time and becomes shorter, then more light is packed together in the same tiny space – the intensity of the pulse increases dramatically.
Strickland and Mourou’s newly invented technique, called chirped pulse amplification, CPA, soon became standard for subsequent high-intensity lasers. Its uses include the millions of corrective eye surgeries that are conducted every year using the sharpest of laser beams.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Gravitational Waves:
- They are ‘ripples’ in the fabric of space-time caused by some of the most violent and energetic processes in the Universe.
- It was hypothesized by Isaac Newton in his theory of Gravitation.
- Continuous Gravitational Waves are produced by a single spinning massive object, like an extremely dense star called a neutron star
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
GRAVITATIONAL WAVES
- Gravitational waves are ‘ripples’ in the fabric of space-time caused by some of the most violent and energetic processes in the Universe.
- The strongest gravitational waves are produced by catastrophic events such as colliding black holes, the collapse of stellar cores (supernovae) etc.
- Hypothesised by Albert Einstein a century ago
TYPES OF GRAVITATIONAL WAVES
Continuous Gravitational Waves: Produced by a single spinning massive object, like an extremely dense star called a neutron star
Compact Binary Inspiral Gravitational Waves: Produced by orbiting pairs of massive and dense (hence “compact”) objects like white dwarf stars, black holes, and neutron stars
Incorrect
GRAVITATIONAL WAVES
- Gravitational waves are ‘ripples’ in the fabric of space-time caused by some of the most violent and energetic processes in the Universe.
- The strongest gravitational waves are produced by catastrophic events such as colliding black holes, the collapse of stellar cores (supernovae) etc.
- Hypothesised by Albert Einstein a century ago
TYPES OF GRAVITATIONAL WAVES
Continuous Gravitational Waves: Produced by a single spinning massive object, like an extremely dense star called a neutron star
Compact Binary Inspiral Gravitational Waves: Produced by orbiting pairs of massive and dense (hence “compact”) objects like white dwarf stars, black holes, and neutron stars
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Earth’s Mini – Moons:
- These are small asteroids temporarily captured in earth’s orbit.
- The Large Synoptic Survey Telescope (LSST), which is currently under construction will verify their existence and track their paths around our planet.
Which of the above statements are correct?
Correct
MINI-MOON
- Earth’s mini-moons – small asteroids temporarily captured in the planet’s orbit – could be used as test-beds for research and commercial space activities in the future.
- These small and fast-moving visitors have so-far evaded detection by existing technology, with only one confirmed mini-moon discovery to date.
- The Large Synoptic Survey Telescope (LSST), which is currently under construction will verify their existence and track their paths around our planet, presenting exciting scientific and commercial opportunities.
- Mini-moons can provide interesting science and technology testbeds in near-Earth space.
- These asteroids are delivered towards Earth from the main asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter via gravitational interactions with the Sun and planets in our solar system
Incorrect
MINI-MOON
- Earth’s mini-moons – small asteroids temporarily captured in the planet’s orbit – could be used as test-beds for research and commercial space activities in the future.
- These small and fast-moving visitors have so-far evaded detection by existing technology, with only one confirmed mini-moon discovery to date.
- The Large Synoptic Survey Telescope (LSST), which is currently under construction will verify their existence and track their paths around our planet, presenting exciting scientific and commercial opportunities.
- Mini-moons can provide interesting science and technology testbeds in near-Earth space.
- These asteroids are delivered towards Earth from the main asteroid belt between Mars and Jupiter via gravitational interactions with the Sun and planets in our solar system
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Which of the following statements correctly defines a ‘Positron’:
Correct
Anti-electrons (called positrons) behave like electrons but have a positive charge. Antiprotons, as the name implies, are protons with a negative charge.
These antimatter particles (which are called “antiparticles”) have been generated and studied at huge particle accelerators such as the Large Hadron Collider operated by CERN
Incorrect
Anti-electrons (called positrons) behave like electrons but have a positive charge. Antiprotons, as the name implies, are protons with a negative charge.
These antimatter particles (which are called “antiparticles”) have been generated and studied at huge particle accelerators such as the Large Hadron Collider operated by CERN
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Heliosphere:
- It is a space around sun which is filled with plasma originating from the sun.
- The extent of heliosphere extends beyond the region of Pluto.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
The heliosphere is the vast, bubble-like region of space which surrounds and is created by the Sun. In plasma physics terms, this is the cavity formed by the Sun in the surrounding interstellar medium. The “bubble” of the heliosphere is continuously “inflated” by plasma originating from the Sun, known as the solar wind. Outside the heliosphere, this solar plasma gives way to the interstellar plasma permeating our galaxy. Radiation levels inside and outside the heliosphere differ; in particular, the galactic cosmic rays are less abundant inside the heliosphere, so that the planets inside (including Earth) are partly shielded from their impact.
Flowing unimpeded through the Solar System for billions of kilometres, the solar wind extends far beyond even the region of Pluto, until it encounters the termination shock, where its motion slows abruptly due to the outside pressure of the interstellar medium. Beyond the shock lies the heliosheath, a broad transitional region between the inner heliosphere and the external environment. The outermost edge of the heliosphere is called the heliopause. The overall shape of the heliosphere resembles that of a comet – being approximately spherical on one side, with a long trailing tail opposite, known as the heliotail.
Incorrect
The heliosphere is the vast, bubble-like region of space which surrounds and is created by the Sun. In plasma physics terms, this is the cavity formed by the Sun in the surrounding interstellar medium. The “bubble” of the heliosphere is continuously “inflated” by plasma originating from the Sun, known as the solar wind. Outside the heliosphere, this solar plasma gives way to the interstellar plasma permeating our galaxy. Radiation levels inside and outside the heliosphere differ; in particular, the galactic cosmic rays are less abundant inside the heliosphere, so that the planets inside (including Earth) are partly shielded from their impact.
Flowing unimpeded through the Solar System for billions of kilometres, the solar wind extends far beyond even the region of Pluto, until it encounters the termination shock, where its motion slows abruptly due to the outside pressure of the interstellar medium. Beyond the shock lies the heliosheath, a broad transitional region between the inner heliosphere and the external environment. The outermost edge of the heliosphere is called the heliopause. The overall shape of the heliosphere resembles that of a comet – being approximately spherical on one side, with a long trailing tail opposite, known as the heliotail.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Which of the following statements are correct regarding Doppler Effect?
- Doppler Effect refers to the change in wave frequency during the relative motion between a wave source and its observer.
- Doppler Effect is true for sound waves but not for light waves.
- The discovery that universe is expanding was made as a consequence of Doppler Effect.
Select the code from following:
Correct
DOPPLER EFFECT
- Doppler Effect refers to the change in wave frequency during the relative motion between a wave source and its observer. It was discovered by Christian Johann Doppler who described it as the process of increase or decrease of starlight that depends on the relative movement of the star.
- Doppler Effect works on both light and sound objects. For instance, when a sound object moves towards you, the frequency of the sound waves increases, leading to a higher pitch. Conversely, if it moves away from you, the frequency of the sound waves decreases and the pitch comes down. The drop in pitch of ambulance sirens as they pass by and the shift in red light are common examples of the Doppler Effect.
- Edwin Hubble made the discovery that the universe expands as a consequence of the Doppler Effect. It has important applications in the fields of astronomy and space technology.
Incorrect
DOPPLER EFFECT
- Doppler Effect refers to the change in wave frequency during the relative motion between a wave source and its observer. It was discovered by Christian Johann Doppler who described it as the process of increase or decrease of starlight that depends on the relative movement of the star.
- Doppler Effect works on both light and sound objects. For instance, when a sound object moves towards you, the frequency of the sound waves increases, leading to a higher pitch. Conversely, if it moves away from you, the frequency of the sound waves decreases and the pitch comes down. The drop in pitch of ambulance sirens as they pass by and the shift in red light are common examples of the Doppler Effect.
- Edwin Hubble made the discovery that the universe expands as a consequence of the Doppler Effect. It has important applications in the fields of astronomy and space technology.
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Which of the following is NOT an example of application of Force?
Correct
If a body is at rest or is moving with constant speed, it means that net force acting on it is zero.
All other are the effects of application of force.
Incorrect
If a body is at rest or is moving with constant speed, it means that net force acting on it is zero.
All other are the effects of application of force.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
An object weighing 100 kg on earth will weigh 38 kg on mars. The main reason behind this is
Correct
The surface gravity on Mars is only about 38% of the surface gravity on Earth, so if you weigh 100 Kgs on Earth, you would weigh only 38 Kgs on Mars.
Incorrect
The surface gravity on Mars is only about 38% of the surface gravity on Earth, so if you weigh 100 Kgs on Earth, you would weigh only 38 Kgs on Mars.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
The property of matter through which it regains its shape once a deforming force is removed, is called
Correct
Elasticity is the ability of a body to resist a distorting influence and to return to its original size and shape when that influence or force is removed. Solid objects will deform when adequate forces are applied to them. If the material is elastic, the object will return to its initial shape and size when these forces are removed.
Incorrect
Elasticity is the ability of a body to resist a distorting influence and to return to its original size and shape when that influence or force is removed. Solid objects will deform when adequate forces are applied to them. If the material is elastic, the object will return to its initial shape and size when these forces are removed.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Athena is a fleet of internet beaming satellite to provide internet access across the world. Which of the following organizations have launched this project?
Correct
Facebook is working on an internet satellite project called Athena to beam internet connectivity down to Earth. The company aims to launch satellite in 2019.
The project, dubbed Athena, would eventually launch a fleet of small satellites into low-Earth orbit, somewhere between 100 and 1,250 miles above sea level, and beam Internet access down to rural areas.
Incorrect
Facebook is working on an internet satellite project called Athena to beam internet connectivity down to Earth. The company aims to launch satellite in 2019.
The project, dubbed Athena, would eventually launch a fleet of small satellites into low-Earth orbit, somewhere between 100 and 1,250 miles above sea level, and beam Internet access down to rural areas.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Which of the following is not a natural magnate?
Correct
A lodestone is a naturally magnetized piece of the mineral magnetite. They are naturally occurring magnets, which can attract iron. The property of magnetism was first discovered in antiquity through lodestones.
Pyrrhotite is an iron sulfide mineral with the formula Fe₍₁₋ₓ₎S. It is a nonstoichiometric variant of FeS, the mineral known as troilite. Pyrrhotite is also called magnetic pyrite, because the color is similar to pyrite and it is weakly magnetic.
Columbite, hard, black (often iridescent), heavy oxide mineral of iron, manganese, and niobium, (Fe, Mn)Nb2O6. It is mildly magnetic.
Incorrect
A lodestone is a naturally magnetized piece of the mineral magnetite. They are naturally occurring magnets, which can attract iron. The property of magnetism was first discovered in antiquity through lodestones.
Pyrrhotite is an iron sulfide mineral with the formula Fe₍₁₋ₓ₎S. It is a nonstoichiometric variant of FeS, the mineral known as troilite. Pyrrhotite is also called magnetic pyrite, because the color is similar to pyrite and it is weakly magnetic.
Columbite, hard, black (often iridescent), heavy oxide mineral of iron, manganese, and niobium, (Fe, Mn)Nb2O6. It is mildly magnetic.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Clouds are condensed liquid water droplets suspended in air. They float in air because they have
Correct
Clouds contain a large amount of water, but that water is dispersed due to low density.
Consider a hypothetical but typical small cloud at an altitude of 10,000 feet, comprising one cubic kilometer and having a liquid water content of 1.0 gram per cubic meter. The total mass of the cloud particles is about 1 million kilograms, which is roughly equivalent to the weight of 500 automobiles. But the total mass of the air in that same cubic kilometer is about 1 billion kilograms–1,000 times heavier than the liquid!
So, even though typical clouds do contain a lot of water, this water is spread out for miles in the form of tiny water droplets or crystals, which are so small that the effect of gravity on them is negligible. Thus, from our vantage on the ground, clouds seem to float in the sky.
Incorrect
Clouds contain a large amount of water, but that water is dispersed due to low density.
Consider a hypothetical but typical small cloud at an altitude of 10,000 feet, comprising one cubic kilometer and having a liquid water content of 1.0 gram per cubic meter. The total mass of the cloud particles is about 1 million kilograms, which is roughly equivalent to the weight of 500 automobiles. But the total mass of the air in that same cubic kilometer is about 1 billion kilograms–1,000 times heavier than the liquid!
So, even though typical clouds do contain a lot of water, this water is spread out for miles in the form of tiny water droplets or crystals, which are so small that the effect of gravity on them is negligible. Thus, from our vantage on the ground, clouds seem to float in the sky.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
The term ‘Plain Packaging’ is seen in news in the context of
Correct
Plain Packaging
- Australia became the first country to introduce plain packaging following the WHO Framework Convention on Tobacco Control (FCTC) guidelines.
- Plain packaging standardises the appearance of tobacco products. Other than brand and product names displayed in a standard colour and font style, it prohibits the use of logos, colours, brand images or promotional information.
- Besides increasing the effectiveness of health warnings, the idea is to reduce the attractiveness of tobacco products, with no scope for using packaging to advertise and promote consumption.
- Thailand and Saudi Arabia are the first in the Asian and Arab regions, respectively, to adopt the tough measure in order to curb tobacco consumption
Incorrect
Plain Packaging
- Australia became the first country to introduce plain packaging following the WHO Framework Convention on Tobacco Control (FCTC) guidelines.
- Plain packaging standardises the appearance of tobacco products. Other than brand and product names displayed in a standard colour and font style, it prohibits the use of logos, colours, brand images or promotional information.
- Besides increasing the effectiveness of health warnings, the idea is to reduce the attractiveness of tobacco products, with no scope for using packaging to advertise and promote consumption.
- Thailand and Saudi Arabia are the first in the Asian and Arab regions, respectively, to adopt the tough measure in order to curb tobacco consumption
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Consider the following statements
- As per the Assam Accord, any person who came to the state after the midnight of March 24, 1971, will be identified as a foreigner.
- The Bodo Accord was signed in 2003 which resulted in the establishment of a Bodoland Territorial Council under Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Clause 6 of the Assam Accord
News: Cabinet has approved the setting up of a High Level Committee to suggest constitutional, legislative and administrative safeguards as envisaged in Clause 6 of the Assam Accord.
About
- After Assam agitation of 1979-1985, Assam Accord was signed on 15th August, 1985.
- Clause 6 of the Assam Accord envisaged that appropriate constitutional, legislative and administrative safeguards, shall be provided to protect, preserve and promote the cultural, social, linguistic identity and heritage of the Assamese people.
- The Committee shall examine the effectiveness of actions since 1985 to implement Clause 6 of the Assam Accord.
- The Committee will hold discussions with all stakeholders and assess the required quantum of reservation of seats in Assam Legislative Assembly and local bodies for Assamese people.
- The Committee will also assess the requirement of measures to be taken to protect Assamese and other indigenous languages of Assam, quantum of reservation in employment under Government of Assam and other measures to protect, preserve and promote cultural, social, linguistic identity and heritage of Assamese people.
- The committee will also look into issues of the Bodo people, especially the measures mentioned in the Memorandum of Settlement signed between the Government of India, Assam government and the Bodo Liberation Tigers Force in 2003.
Assam Accord
- As per the Assam Accord, any person who came to the state after the midnight of March 24, 1971, will be identified as a foreigner
- Citizenship (Amendment) Bill which proposes to make minority (non-Muslim) immigrants from three neighbouring countries — Bangladesh, Afghanistan and Pakistan — eligible for Indian citizenship is seen to violate the Assam Accord by differentiating between migrants on the basis of religion
The Bodo Accord was signed in 2003 which resulted in the establishment of a Bodoland Territorial Council under Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
Incorrect
Clause 6 of the Assam Accord
News: Cabinet has approved the setting up of a High Level Committee to suggest constitutional, legislative and administrative safeguards as envisaged in Clause 6 of the Assam Accord.
About
- After Assam agitation of 1979-1985, Assam Accord was signed on 15th August, 1985.
- Clause 6 of the Assam Accord envisaged that appropriate constitutional, legislative and administrative safeguards, shall be provided to protect, preserve and promote the cultural, social, linguistic identity and heritage of the Assamese people.
- The Committee shall examine the effectiveness of actions since 1985 to implement Clause 6 of the Assam Accord.
- The Committee will hold discussions with all stakeholders and assess the required quantum of reservation of seats in Assam Legislative Assembly and local bodies for Assamese people.
- The Committee will also assess the requirement of measures to be taken to protect Assamese and other indigenous languages of Assam, quantum of reservation in employment under Government of Assam and other measures to protect, preserve and promote cultural, social, linguistic identity and heritage of Assamese people.
- The committee will also look into issues of the Bodo people, especially the measures mentioned in the Memorandum of Settlement signed between the Government of India, Assam government and the Bodo Liberation Tigers Force in 2003.
Assam Accord
- As per the Assam Accord, any person who came to the state after the midnight of March 24, 1971, will be identified as a foreigner
- Citizenship (Amendment) Bill which proposes to make minority (non-Muslim) immigrants from three neighbouring countries — Bangladesh, Afghanistan and Pakistan — eligible for Indian citizenship is seen to violate the Assam Accord by differentiating between migrants on the basis of religion
The Bodo Accord was signed in 2003 which resulted in the establishment of a Bodoland Territorial Council under Sixth Schedule of the Constitution of India.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Consider the following statement with respect to ‘Border Area Development Programme (BADP)’
- It is implemented by the Ministry of Defence through States Governments
- It is classified as a Core Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS)
Select the correct statements
Correct
Border Area Development Programme (BADP)
- The Department of Border Management, Ministry of Home Affairs has been implementing the Border Area Development Programme (BADP) through the State Governments as part of a comprehensive approach to Border Management.
- The programme aims to meet the special development needs of the people living in remote and inaccessible areas situated near the international border and to saturate the border areas with the essential infrastructure through convergence of Central/State/BADP/Local schemes and participatory approach.
- The Programme was a 100% centrally sponsored gap filling till 2015-16.
- However, from 2016-17, on the recommendations of the Sub- Group of Chief Ministers, it has been classified as a Core Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) and is now part of the National Development Agenda.
- The funding pattern of BADP (like other Core CSSs), in respect of 8 North Eastern States (viz. Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura) & 3 Himalayan States (viz. Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir and Uttarakhand) is in the ratio 90:10 and in respect of 6 other States (viz. Bihar, Gujarat, Punjab, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal) is in the ratio 60:40.
Incorrect
Border Area Development Programme (BADP)
- The Department of Border Management, Ministry of Home Affairs has been implementing the Border Area Development Programme (BADP) through the State Governments as part of a comprehensive approach to Border Management.
- The programme aims to meet the special development needs of the people living in remote and inaccessible areas situated near the international border and to saturate the border areas with the essential infrastructure through convergence of Central/State/BADP/Local schemes and participatory approach.
- The Programme was a 100% centrally sponsored gap filling till 2015-16.
- However, from 2016-17, on the recommendations of the Sub- Group of Chief Ministers, it has been classified as a Core Centrally Sponsored Scheme (CSS) and is now part of the National Development Agenda.
- The funding pattern of BADP (like other Core CSSs), in respect of 8 North Eastern States (viz. Arunachal Pradesh, Assam, Manipur, Meghalaya, Mizoram, Nagaland, Sikkim and Tripura) & 3 Himalayan States (viz. Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir and Uttarakhand) is in the ratio 90:10 and in respect of 6 other States (viz. Bihar, Gujarat, Punjab, Rajasthan, Uttar Pradesh and West Bengal) is in the ratio 60:40.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Capital Conservation Buffer (CCB)’
- It is designed to ensure that banks build up capital buffers outside periods of stress which can be drawn down, as losses are incurred
- It was introduced in 1991 to improve the ability of banks to withstand adverse economic conditions.
Select the correct statements
Correct
News: Reserve Bank of India (RBI) decided to extend the deadline for implementing last tranche of an additional 0.625% to be set aside as capital conservation buffer, required under the Basel 3 norms, by a year (up to March 31, 2020).
Capital Conservation Buffer (CCB)
- The CCB is the capital buffer that banks have to accumulate in normal times to be used for offsetting losses during periods of stress.
- It is a relatively new concept, introduced under the international Basel III norms
- The capital conservation buffer (CCB) is designed to ensure that banks build up capital buffers during normal times (i.e. outside periods of stress) which can be drawn down as losses are incurred during a stressed period.
- The requirement is based on simple capital conservation rules designed to avoid breaches of minimum capital requirements.
- It was introduced after the 2008 global financial crisis to improve the ability of banks to withstand adverse economic conditions.
- According to Capital Conservation Buffer (CCB) norms, banks will be required to hold a buffer of 2.5% Risk Weighted Assets (RWAs) in the form of Common Equity, over and above Capital Adequacy Ratio of 9%.
Incorrect
News: Reserve Bank of India (RBI) decided to extend the deadline for implementing last tranche of an additional 0.625% to be set aside as capital conservation buffer, required under the Basel 3 norms, by a year (up to March 31, 2020).
Capital Conservation Buffer (CCB)
- The CCB is the capital buffer that banks have to accumulate in normal times to be used for offsetting losses during periods of stress.
- It is a relatively new concept, introduced under the international Basel III norms
- The capital conservation buffer (CCB) is designed to ensure that banks build up capital buffers during normal times (i.e. outside periods of stress) which can be drawn down as losses are incurred during a stressed period.
- The requirement is based on simple capital conservation rules designed to avoid breaches of minimum capital requirements.
- It was introduced after the 2008 global financial crisis to improve the ability of banks to withstand adverse economic conditions.
- According to Capital Conservation Buffer (CCB) norms, banks will be required to hold a buffer of 2.5% Risk Weighted Assets (RWAs) in the form of Common Equity, over and above Capital Adequacy Ratio of 9%.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
‘Persian Gulf Regional Dialogue Forum’ is proposed by
Correct
Persian Gulf Regional Dialogue Forum
- In a diplomatic initiative to address the lingering conflicts and mistrust in the Gulf region, Iran has proposed a new platform for regional peace building.
Incorrect
Persian Gulf Regional Dialogue Forum
- In a diplomatic initiative to address the lingering conflicts and mistrust in the Gulf region, Iran has proposed a new platform for regional peace building.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Identify the cultural hub, based on the statements given below:
- It is known for its famous Sri Kapaleeswarar Temple.
- The rituals and the popular festival of Arubathu Moovar.
Select the correct code:
Correct
Thirumayilai or Mylapore is one of the most important cultural hubs in the history of Chennai and Tamil Nadu.
Mylapore is known for its famous Sri Kapaleeswarar Temple, the ancient architecture, the rituals and the popular festival of Arubathu Moovar (a procession of bronze images of the 63 Saiva saints).
The temple, dedicated to Lord Shiva, has been mentioned in the beautiful hymns of the 7th century saint, Thirugnana Sambandar, in his Devaram, and is well-known for its rich mythological stories.
The seat of music, dance, art and history, the streets around the temple represent the vibrant culture of Tamil Nadu.
Incorrect
Thirumayilai or Mylapore is one of the most important cultural hubs in the history of Chennai and Tamil Nadu.
Mylapore is known for its famous Sri Kapaleeswarar Temple, the ancient architecture, the rituals and the popular festival of Arubathu Moovar (a procession of bronze images of the 63 Saiva saints).
The temple, dedicated to Lord Shiva, has been mentioned in the beautiful hymns of the 7th century saint, Thirugnana Sambandar, in his Devaram, and is well-known for its rich mythological stories.
The seat of music, dance, art and history, the streets around the temple represent the vibrant culture of Tamil Nadu.
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
The Circularity Gap Report 2019 has been released by:
Correct
The Circularity Gap Report 2019’ by Circle Economy, a self-described “impact organization,” highlights the relationship between climate change and material use, warning that greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions and resource extraction have continued to increase.
The report urges a paradigm shift towards the circular economy to tackle climate change.
Of the 92.8 billion tonnes of biomass, fossil fuels, metals and minerals that enter the global economy annually, only nine percent are re-used.
The report calculates that 62 percent of global GHG emissions, excluding those from land use and forestry, are released during extraction, processing and manufacturing of goods compared to 38 percent of GHG emissions from the delivery and use of products and services.
Despite these figures, global use of materials continues to accelerate and could double by 2050 without action.
A circular economy (often referred to simply as “circularity”) is an economic system aimed at minimising waste and making the most of resources. This regenerative approach is in contrast to the traditional linear economy, which has a ‘take, make, dispose’ model of production.
In a circular system resource input and waste, emission, and energy leakage are minimized by slowing, closing, and narrowing energy and material loops; this can be achieved through long-lasting design, maintenance, repair, reuse, remanufacturing, refurbishing, and recycling, all implemented via corporate and social entrepreneurship.
Incorrect
The Circularity Gap Report 2019’ by Circle Economy, a self-described “impact organization,” highlights the relationship between climate change and material use, warning that greenhouse gas (GHG) emissions and resource extraction have continued to increase.
The report urges a paradigm shift towards the circular economy to tackle climate change.
Of the 92.8 billion tonnes of biomass, fossil fuels, metals and minerals that enter the global economy annually, only nine percent are re-used.
The report calculates that 62 percent of global GHG emissions, excluding those from land use and forestry, are released during extraction, processing and manufacturing of goods compared to 38 percent of GHG emissions from the delivery and use of products and services.
Despite these figures, global use of materials continues to accelerate and could double by 2050 without action.
A circular economy (often referred to simply as “circularity”) is an economic system aimed at minimising waste and making the most of resources. This regenerative approach is in contrast to the traditional linear economy, which has a ‘take, make, dispose’ model of production.
In a circular system resource input and waste, emission, and energy leakage are minimized by slowing, closing, and narrowing energy and material loops; this can be achieved through long-lasting design, maintenance, repair, reuse, remanufacturing, refurbishing, and recycling, all implemented via corporate and social entrepreneurship.
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
The report titled ‘Pro-Poor Climate Action in Informal Settlements’ is launched by:
Correct
Climate action in informal settlements calls for a “detailed, in-depth and nuanced” understanding of the physical conditions, the demographics and the differentiated vulnerabilities of affected populations, finds a UN Human Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat) report titled, ‘Pro-Poor Climate Action in Informal Settlements.’
Incorrect
Climate action in informal settlements calls for a “detailed, in-depth and nuanced” understanding of the physical conditions, the demographics and the differentiated vulnerabilities of affected populations, finds a UN Human Settlements Programme (UN-Habitat) report titled, ‘Pro-Poor Climate Action in Informal Settlements.’
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
The first European township in India that is more than 500 year old is:
Correct
The first European township in India was built as a Kochi fort city by the Portuguese and then refortified by the Dutch.
The fort city was already close to 300 years old by the time the English came. Their language, religion and culture permeated through the lives of the locals who mixed with them.
When the Portuguese penetrated the Indian Ocean in the late 15th century and reached India’s southwestern coast, the Portuguese navigator Pedro Álvares Cabral founded the first European settlement on Indian soil at Kochi in 1500.
Vasco da Gama, discoverer of the sea route to India (1498), established the first Portuguese factory (trading station) there in 1502, and the Portuguese viceroy Afonso de Albuquerque built the first European fort in India there in 1503.
The city remained a Portuguese possession until it was conquered by the Dutch in 1663. Much Portuguese architecture still exists in the city.
Incorrect
The first European township in India was built as a Kochi fort city by the Portuguese and then refortified by the Dutch.
The fort city was already close to 300 years old by the time the English came. Their language, religion and culture permeated through the lives of the locals who mixed with them.
When the Portuguese penetrated the Indian Ocean in the late 15th century and reached India’s southwestern coast, the Portuguese navigator Pedro Álvares Cabral founded the first European settlement on Indian soil at Kochi in 1500.
Vasco da Gama, discoverer of the sea route to India (1498), established the first Portuguese factory (trading station) there in 1502, and the Portuguese viceroy Afonso de Albuquerque built the first European fort in India there in 1503.
The city remained a Portuguese possession until it was conquered by the Dutch in 1663. Much Portuguese architecture still exists in the city.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
The Global Commission on the Stability of Cyberspace (GCSC) is instituted by:
Correct
The Global Commission on the Stability of Cyberspace (GCSC) is helping to promote mutual awareness and understanding among the various cyberspace communities working on issues related to international cybersecurity.
The Commission is initiated by two independent think tanks, The Hague Centre for Strategic Studies (HCSS) and the EastWest Institute (EWI).
Incorrect
The Global Commission on the Stability of Cyberspace (GCSC) is helping to promote mutual awareness and understanding among the various cyberspace communities working on issues related to international cybersecurity.
The Commission is initiated by two independent think tanks, The Hague Centre for Strategic Studies (HCSS) and the EastWest Institute (EWI).