IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan – IAS Prelims Test Series 2021 – ENVIRONMENT, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT [Day 30]

  • IASbaba
  • April 24, 2021
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IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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Hello Friends, 



NOTE: IASbaba’s 60 DAY questions will be posted around 10 AM. The solution will be released around 6 PM Daily. 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! 

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 6 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  


Q.1) With reference to National Disaster Management Authority consider the following statements?

  1. It is an autonomous body under Ministry of Home Affairs
  2. It is headed by Prime Minister.
  3. NDMA is mandated to lay down the policies, plans and guidelines for Disaster Management.

Which of the above statements are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) Which of the following disaster is not monitored by Ministry of Home Affairs?

  1. Cyclone
  2. Hailstorm
  3. Flood
  4. Landslide

Q.3) Which of the following agency is involved in preparation of Climate Vulnerability Assessment Map of India?

  1. NITI Aayog
  2. Department of Biotechnology
  3. National Disaster Management Authority
  4. Department of Science and Technology

Q.4) Recently, a term called ‘Dooms day Clock’ was in news, it is associated with –

  1. A countdown clock to warn people from upcoming world war.
  2. An ecofriendly clock which uses solar power.
  3. A hypothetical clock to measure the effect of greenhouse gases on environment.
  4. Visual depiction of how vulnerable the world is to a climate or nuclear catastrophe.

Q.5) Consider the following statements in context of Sustainable Agriculture:

  1. Sustainable agriculture is aimed at meeting the needs of the present generation without endangering the resource base of the future generations.
  2. Degradation of natural resources is the main issue threatening sustainable development of agriculture.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.6) Who among the following is the head of Crisis Management Committee?

  1. Prime Minister
  2. Chairman of NITI Aayog
  3. Cabinet Secretary
  4. Home Minister

Q.7) Which of the following are classified as Terrestrial disaster?

  1. Floods
  2. Blizzard
  3. Drought
  4. Landslides
  5. Earthquake

Choose appropriate answer:

  1. 1 , 2 and 3 only
  2. 2, 4 and 5 only
  3. 1, 3 and 4 only
  4. 4 and 5 only

Q.8) Consider the following statements:

  1. Geological Survey of India is the nodal agency for the Indian government for landslide data repository and landslide studies.
  2. UN Office for Disaster Risk Reduction (UNISDR) has been tasked to support the implementation, follow-up and review of the Sendai Framework.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.9) Consider the following statements with reference to National Disaster Response Fund (NDRF)

  1. NDRF amount can be spent towards the mitigation of disaster risks.
  2. The primary purpose of NDRF is to supplement the SDRF, in case there is a calamity of “severe nature”.
  3. NDRF is located in the “Public Accounts” of Government of India under “Reserve Funds not bearing interest”

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.10) Consider the following statements with reference to Regional Integrated Multi-Hazard Early Warning System (RIMES) for Africa and Asia:

  1. It is an international and intergovernmental institution, owned by its member states and managed by UN.
  2. RIMES operates from its regional early warning center located at the campus of the Asian Institute of Technology in Pathumthani, Thailand.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.11) Consider the following statements with reference to Sendai Framework for disaster risk reduction

  1. It is a 15 year long, voluntary, nonbinding agreement which recognizes that state has a primary role in disaster risk reduction.
  2. It is a successor instrument to the Yokohama Framework for Action.
  3. India is a signatory to this framework.

Which of the statements give above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.12) The term ‘Fujiwara effect’ was in news with reference to

  1. Effect of use nuclear energy
  2. Collusion of two cyclone
  3. Biodiversity loss caused due erratic rain
  4. Quantum technology application

Q.13) Consider the following statements

  1. Under 15th finance commission in grant for disaster risk management more than two-third fund is for disaster mitigations.
  2. Bioswales system is suggested as a potential solution for urban floods.

Which of the statement give above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.14) The term ‘Torrefecation technology’ was in news with reference to

  1. Big data analytics
  2. Terminator seeds
  3. Solution to stubble burning
  4. GM Crops

Q.15) Bioremediation may not be best suited for removal of which of the following

  1. Uranium
  2. Cadmium
  3. Chromium
  4. All of the above

Q.16) Which of the following factors are responsible for Glacial Lake Outbursts Floods?

  1. Glacial retreat due to climate change.
  2. Long-term dam degradation
  3. Black carbon which melts ice on mountains due to albedo effect.

Choose correct answer:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.17) Which of the following statements with respect to Coalition for Disaster Resilient Infrastructure (CDRI) is/are correct?

  1. It is a voluntary international grouping linking government and UN agencies only.
  2. It is second major coalition launched by India outside the UN, after the International Solar Alliance.
  3. Its secretariat is in New Delhi.

Select the appropriate answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.18) What are the benefits of vertical farming?

  1. Increased crop yield
  2. Ability to cultivate large variety of crop at once.
  3. Start-up cost is low compared to traditional farming.

Choose appropriate code:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.19) Kuttanad in India is primarily known for

  1. Intricate tribal art
  2. Salt production region
  3. Below sea level farming
  4. Has got GI for its silk saree

Q.20) Which of the following are advantages of zero tillage in agriculture.

  1. Increase in organic matter content
  2. Reduction in the crop duration
  3. Low amount of nitrogen needed

Select the correct code:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. All

Q.21) With reference to World Anti-Doping Agency (WADA), consider the following statements:

  1. WADA is a foundation initiated by the International Olympic Committee.
  2. Scientific Research is one of the key activities of WADA.
  3. WADA monitors the provisions of World Anti-Doping Code.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.22) Consider the following pairs:

Wildlife Sanctuary State/UT
1.     Singalila Odisha
2.     Pobitora Assam
3.     Shoolpaneshwar Maharashtra

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1 and 2 only

Q.23) The Vanchit Ikai Samooh Aur Vargon Ki Aarthik Sahayta (VISVAS) Yojana is an interest subvention scheme for financial empowerment of which of the following marginalized groups?

  1. Scheduled Castes (SC)
  2. Scheduled Tribes (ST)
  3. Other Backward Classes (OBC)

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.24) Consider the following statements regarding ‘Pneumosil’ vaccine:

  1. It is India’s first pneumococcal conjugate vaccine.
  2. It is developed by National Institute of Virology, Pune.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.25) The ‘Swadhinata Sarak’ is a road route that connects India with which of the following neighbouring country?

  1. Nepal
  2. Bhutan
  3. Pakistan
  4. Bangladesh

Q.26) Consider the following pairs:

Indigenous Games Origin
1.     Kalaripayattu Kerala
2.     Gatka Punjab
3.     Thang-Ta Manipur

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.27) The Emissions Gap Report is an annual report released by which of the following?

  1. German Watch
  2. United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)
  3. United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
  4. World Wide Fund for Nature (WWF)

Q.28) The Tharu tribes live mostly in which of the following States of India?

  1. Himachal Pradesh
  2. Uttarakhand
  3. Uttar Pradesh
  4. Bihar
  5. Jharkhand

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 and 4 only
  3. 3, 4 and 5 only
  4. 2, 3 and 4 only

Q.29) India’s largest renewable energy generation park is situated in which of the following State?

  1. Rajasthan
  2. Gujarat
  3. Maharashtra
  4. Karnataka

Q.30) The National Mission on Inter-Disciplinary Cyber-Physical Systems (NM-ICPS) is implemented by which of the following?

  1. Department of Science & Technology (DST)
  2. Department of Scientific & Industrial Research (DSIR)
  3. Department of Electronics and Information Technology (DeitY)
  4. Department of Telecommunications (DoT)

Q.31) Tickets numbered 1 to 20 are mixed up and then a ticket is drawn at random. What is the probability that the ticket drawn has a number which is a multiple of 3 or 5?

  1. 1/2
  2. 2/5
  3. 7/20
  4. 9/20

Q.32) A speaks truth in 75% of cases and B in 80% of cases. In what percentage of cases are they likely to contradict each other, narrating the same incident?

  1. 25%
  2. 30%
  3. 35%
  4. 40%

Study the following passage and answer the 3 (three) questions that follow. Your answers to these questions should be based on the passage only.

To discover the relation between rules, paradigms, and normal science, consider first how the historian isolates the particular loci of commitment that have been described as accepted rules. Close historical investigation of a given speciality at a given time discloses a set of recurrent and quasi-standard illustrations of various theories in their conceptual, observational, and instrumental applications. These are the community’s paradigms, revealed in its textbooks, lectures, and laboratory exercises. By studying them and by practising with them, the members of the corresponding community learn their trade. The historian, of course, will discover also a penumbral area occupied by achievements whose status is still in doubt, but the core of solved problems and techniques will usually be clear. Despite occasional ambiguities, the paradigms of a mature scientific community can be determined with relative ease.

That demands a second step and one of a somewhat different kind. When undertaking it, the historian must compare the community’s paradigms with each other and with its current research reports. In doing so, his object is to discover what isolable elements, explicit or implicit, the members of that community may have abstracted from their more global paradigms and deploy it as rules in their research. Anyone who has attempted to describe or analyse the evolution of a particular scientific tradition will necessarily have sought accepted principles and rules of this sort. Almost certainly, he will have met with at least partial success. But, if his experience has been at all like my own, he will have found the search for rules both more difficult and less satisfying than the search for paradigms. Some of the generalizations he employs to describe the community’s shared beliefs will present more problems. Others, however, will seem a shade too strong. Phrased in just that way, or in any other way he can imagine, they would almost certainly have been rejected by some members of the group he studies. Nevertheless, if the coherence of the research tradition is to be understood in terms of rules, some specification of common ground in the corresponding area is needed. As a result, the search for a body of rules competent to constitute a given normal research tradition becomes a source of continual and deep frustration.

Recognizing that frustration, however, makes it possible to diagnose its source. Scientists can agree that a Newton, Lavoisier, Maxwell, or Einstein has produced a permanent solution to a group of outstanding problems and still disagree, sometimes without being aware of it, about the particular abstract characteristics that make those solutions permanent. They can, that is, agree in their identification of a paradigm without agreeing on, or even attempting to produce, a full interpretation or rationalization of it. Lack of a standard interpretation or an agreed reduction to rules will not prevent a paradigm from guiding research. Normal science can be determined in part by the direct inspection of paradigms, a process that is often aided by but does not depend upon the formulation of rules and assumption. Indeed, the existence of a paradigm need not even imply that any full set of rules exists.

Q.33) What is the author attempting to illustrate through this passage?

  1. Relationships between rules, paradigms, and normal science
  2. How a historian would isolate a particular ‘loci of commitment’
  3. How a set of shared beliefs evolve into a paradigm
  4. Ways of understanding a scientific tradition


Q.34) The term ‘loci of commitment’ as used in the passage would most likely correspond with which of the following?

  1. Loyalty between a group of scientists in a research laboratory
  2. Loyalty between groups of scientists across research laboratories
  3. Loyalty to a certain paradigm of scientific inquiry
  4. Loyalty to global patterns of scientific inquiry


Q.35) The author of this passage is likely to agree with which of the following?

  1. A group of scientists investigating a phenomenon would benefit by defining a set of rules
  2. Acceptance by the giants of a tradition is a sine qua non for a paradigm to emerge
  3. Choice of isolation mechanism determines the types of paradigm that may emerge from a tradition
  4. Paradigms are a general representation of rules and beliefs of a scientific tradition

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

  1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

  2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

  3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.

What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

  1. Lack of information
  2. Lack of analytical ability
  3. Silly mistakes
  4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

  1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
  2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
  3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
  4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!

Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. 


SOLUTION- Download Here



  • Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off will be released around 10PM and Rank List will be announced soon.
  • Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.


Congratulations to all

1 Taranpreet kaur 60
2 Shubam Singhla 54
3 Sankar S 52
3 shilpa 52
4 Vanshika 50.8
5 Mansi 50
5 Ravi kumar Singh 50
5 Santosh Kumar 50
6 Naveen 48.68
7 Vinay 48
8 ayaan pathan 47.36
9 Montey 46
10 Priya 45
11 Tarunkumar M N 44
12 Swati Jindal 42
13 Sadhana 40
14 Preeti Sinha 38.65
15 Rani singh 38.04
16 Shruthika 38
18 hemant 34.66
19 Rakshitha 34.4
20 Rajesh Naidu 34
21 Priyanshi Goel 33.33
21 Sushil 33.3
22 Amisha 32.72
23 shubham varma 32.06
24 Vinay Tripathi 30.66
25 Pratik 29.41

All the Best!




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