IASbaba’s 60 Day Plan – IAS Prelims Test Series 2021 – ENVIRONMENT, CURRENT AFFAIRS & CSAT [Day 42]

  • IASbaba
  • May 8, 2021
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IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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Hello Friends, 


NOTE: IASbaba’s 60 DAY questions will be posted around 10 AM. The solution will be released around 5 PM Daily. 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! 

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 5 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  


Q.1) Consider the following statements with reference to National Clean Air Program.

  1. It is a pollution control initiative launched by Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate change.
  2. It aims to cut the concentration of Particulate matter by at least 40% by 2025.
  3. Under NCAP, 500 smart cities have been identified across the country based on the Air Quality data from 2014-2018.

Which of the above statements are incorrect?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1 , 2 and 3

Q.2) Recently a term ‘Brown carbon Tarballs’ was in news, which is associated with –

  1. The particles that absorb graphene but are extremely short-lived.
  2. Small light-absorbing, carbonaceous particles that deposits on snow and ice.
  3. A pollutant released from nuclear power plants.
  4. The cell tissue that resides in Plant

Q.3) Which of the followings are Ex-situ method of Bioremediation?

  1. Land farming
  2. Biopiles
  3. Biosparging
  4. Bioreactors

Select the correct code:

  1. 1 , 2 and 4 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 , 3 and 4 only
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Q.4) Which of the following statements with reference to Critical Wildlife Habitat is/are correct?

  1. They have been envisaged in Wildlife Protection (Amendment) Act 2002.
  2. These areas are required to be kept as inviolate for the purposes of wildlife conservation.
  3. Ministry of Tribal Affairs determines and identifies it.

Select the correct code

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 2 and 3 only

Q.5) Smog is the most common form of Air Pollution that occurs in many cities throughout the world. Consider the following statements with reference to it.

  1. Classical smog occurs in cool humid climate and is mixture of smog, fog and sulphur dioxide.
  2. Photochemical smog occurs in warm, dry and sunny climate and has concentration of oxidising agents.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.6) Which of the following are the consequences of Harmful Algal Blooms over Aquatic Environment?

  1. It leads to change in water colour giving foul, obnoxious smell making it unfit for drinking purposes.
  2. It increases the penetration of lights by settling the decomposed substances at the bottom.
  3. It increases the Biological Oxygen demand of water.

Select the correct code

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.7) In which of the following the concept of extended producer responsibility has not been imbibed?

  1. Plastic waste Management Rules, 2016
  2. E-waste management and Handling Rules, 2011
  3. Solid waste management Rules, 2016
  4. The Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011

Q.8) Dobson Unit measures which of the following

  1. Greenhouse gases
  2. Arsenic contamination
  3. Species richness in a community
  4. Thickness of Ozone layer

Q.9) Consider the following statements with reference to Zero Liquid Discharge.

  1. It is a waste treatment process to recirculate all the water back to the process with zero liquid waste.
  2. Zero Liquid Discharge generates hazardous solid wastes creating disposal challenges.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.10) Consider the following statements

  1. Water having dissolved oxygen less than 50 mg/L is considered as contaminated.
  2. BOD is the amount of dissolved oxygen needed by bacteria in decomposing the organic wastes present in water.
  3. Higher value of Biological oxygen demand indicates higher dissolved oxygen.

Which of the above given statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1 ,2 and 3

Q.11) Burning of coal generates fly ash which contain many toxic pollutants, which include

  1. Sulphur
  2. Zinc
  3. Arsenic
  4. Plutonium
  5. Mercury

Select the correct code

  1. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
  2. 1,3, 4 and 5 only
  3. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 5 only

Q.12) There are several ways to remove particulate matter from atmosphere. Consider the following statements with respect to it.

  1. The electrostatic precipitator can remove over 99 per cent particulate matter present in the exhaust from a thermal power plant.
  2. A scrubber can remove gases like Sulphur dioxide and in a scrubber, the exhaust is passed through a spray of water or lime.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both
  4. None of the above

Q.13) Which of the following statements are correct with reference to Central Pollution Control Board?

  1. It was established under the Air (Prevention and Control of Pollution) Act, 1981.
  2. It co-ordinates the activities of the State Pollution Control Boards by providing technical assistance and guidance and also resolves disputes among them.
  3. CPCB has the responsibility to regulate and control noise producing and generating sources.

Select the correct answer using the code given below

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.14) Consider the following statements:

  1. Biodiversity hotspots are areas that have relatively low biological diversity but are also experiencing a high rate of habitat loss.
  2. Biodiversity cold spots are regions with unusually high concentrations of endemic species that also have suffered severe habitat destruction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.15) Consider the following species and select the critically endangered from the code given below:

  1. Indian Pangolin
  2. Asiatic Lion
  3. Indian Bustard
  4. Gharial
  5. Bengal Florican

Select the correct code:

  1. 1, 2 and 3 only
  2. 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. 3, 4 and 5 only
  4. All of the above

Q.16) Consider the following statements with reference to E-waste Management in India

  1. India is the 8th largest E-waste generator in the world
  2. India’s first E-waste clinic is going to be set up in Bhopal that would enable segregation, processing and disposal of waste from both household and commercial units.
  3. Under E-waste management rules 2018, the financial cost of testing Electronic equipment is to borne by producer.

 Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 3 only

Q.17) For Bio magnification to occur, a pollutant must be –

  1. Soluble in fat
  2. Short lived
  3. Mobile
  4. Biologically active

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2 and 4 only
  3. 1, 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3 only

Q.18) Biorock technology is in news with reference to

  1. Coral Reef restoration
  2. Tackling climate change through cloud seeding
  3. Heart regenerative technology
  4. Restoration of Ozone layer

Q.19) Consider the following statements with reference to Plastic waste management rules 2016 (as amended in 2018).

  1. It defines minimum thickness of plastic carry bags.
  2. It seeks to promote use of plastic for road construction.
  3. It aims to phase out Multi-layered plastics by 2024.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.20) The Global Climate risk index is released by

  1. IUCN
  2. IPBES
  3. German watch
  4. UNEP

Q.21) With reference to Global Partnerships on Artificial Intelligence (GPAI), consider the following statements:

  1. GPAI aims to bridge the gap between theory and practice on Artificial Intelligence.
  2. GPAI is built around a shared commitment to the OECD Recommendation on Artificial Intelligence.
  3. India is a founding member of GPAI.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.22) Which of the following institutions has recently launched the ‘Seaweed Mission’ for commercial farming of seaweeds?

  1. Technology Information, Forecasting and Assessment Council (TIFAC)
  2. Central Marine Fisheries Research Institute (CMFRI)
  3. Indian National Centre for Ocean Information Services (INCOIS)
  4. Central Institute of Fisheries Technology (CIFT)

Q.23) With reference to Leatherback sea turtle, consider the following statements:

  1. It is the smallest of the seven species of sea turtles.
  2. It is found only in Indian and Pacific Ocean.
  3. It is listed in Schedule I of Wildlife Protection Act, 1972.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1 and 3 only

Q.24) India’s first full-fledged international cruise terminal “Sagarika” is located in which of the following State?

  1. Gujarat
  2. Maharashtra
  3. Goa
  4. Kerala

Q.25) The draft of National Strategy on Blockchain is released by which of the following?

  1. Ministry of Science and Technology
  2. NITI Aayog
  3. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  4. Both (a) and (b)

Q.26) Recently the Central Bank of Sri Lanka (CBSL) settled a $400 million currency swap facility from the RBI. In this context, consider the following statements:

  1. Currency swap agreement is an arrangementbetween two countries to involve in trading in their own local currencies.
  2. A currency swap agreement reduces the risk of volatility against the third currency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.27) The historic martyr town of Dhekiajuli in Assam is associated with which of the following Indian independence movement?

  1. Non Cooperation Movement
  2. Anti-Simon Commission Movement
  3. Civil Disobedience Movement
  4. Quit India Movement

Q.28) Arrange the following Islands of Indian Ocean from North to South?

  1. Comoros
  2. Mauritius
  3. Maldives
  4. Seychelles

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 3 – 4 – 1 – 2
  2. 2 – 4 – 1 – 3
  3. 3 – 1 – 4 – 2
  4. 2 – 1 – 4 – 3

Q.29) The Scheme of Jan Shikshan Sansthan aims to provide vocational training to which of the following?

  1. Non-literates
  2. Neo-literates
  3. School drop-outs

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 2 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.30) The “Go Electric” Campaign has been launched recently by which of the following Ministry?

  1. Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change
  2. Ministry of Road Transport & Highways
  3. Ministry of Power
  4. Ministry of Heavy Industries and Public Enterprises

Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow each passage. Your answer to these questions should be based on passage only.

Ever since the Centre and the States passed the landmark legislation in 2016 adopting a single countrywide Goods and Services Tax (GST), the federal council that is tasked with overseeing all the regulatory aspects of the indirect tax has had its hands full. From recommending the rates that could apply to various products and services, to deciding on what could be tax exempted, the GST Council has had the onerous task of laying out the policy framework for administering the tax in a manner that benefits all stakeholders – the governments, the consumers and the suppliers along the value chain. Given the complexity of the legacy taxes that GST subsumed and replaced and the teething troubles of operating a new tax system, ensuring optimal outcomes has proved an abiding challenge. A significant concern relates to the loopholes that unscrupulous operators have sought to exploit, whereby revenue that ought to have accrued to the Centre and the States has leaked while allowing these elements to derive illicit profits. And the scale of some has been breath-taking. Earlier this month, the Directorate General of GST Intelligence and the Directorate General of Revenue Intelligence conducted a pan-India joint operation, which saw about 1,200 officers simultaneously conducting searches at 336 different locations. In the process they unearthed a network of exporters and their suppliers who had connived to claim fraudulent refunds of Integrated GST, with more than ₹470 crore of input tax credit availed being based on non-existent entities or suppliers with fictitious addresses. A further ₹450 crore of IGST refund is also under review.

It is against the backdrop of such cases, and the fact that frauds totalling up to a staggering ₹45,682 crore have been detected since the roll-out of the tax in July 2017, that the GST Council has decided “in principle” to recommend linking Aadhaar with registration of taxpayers. In its 37th meeting in Goa on Friday, the council also agreed to appraise the possibility of making the biometrics-based unique identifier mandatory for claiming refunds. Already the GST Network — the information technology backbone on which the whole tax system runs — has made it mandatory for new dealers registering under the composition scheme for small businesses to either authenticate their Aadhaar or submit to physical verification of their business, starting January 2020. The council too needs to follow the network’s lead and move swiftly to recommend mandatory linking for refunds, especially since that has proved to be the main source of most frauds. In a becalmed economy, neither the Centre nor States can afford to forego even a rupee of revenue that is due to the public coffers.

Q.31) According to the passage what remedial actions are suggested to avoid fraudulent activities?

  1. Authentication of Aadhaar for new registrations
  2. Biometrics-based unique identifier mandatory for claiming refunds
  3. Linking Aadhaar with registration of taxpayers
  4. All of the above

Q.32) Which of the following is the most logical inference that can be drawn from the passage?

  1. GST has some challenges in terms of administration which cannot be rectified.
  2. GST loopholes are easy to identify and it has led to a decrease in tax theft.
  3. The new tax regime has become a tiring and excruciating exercise to operate.
  4. Aadhaar-Linked GST registration will help curb the malpractices and smooth operation of GST.

Direction for the following 2(two) questions:

Study the information given below and answer the questions that follow

A family consists of six members A, B, C, D, E, and F. There are two married couples. B is a doctor and father of E. F is the grandfather of C and is a contractor. D is the grandmother of E and is a housewife. There is one doctor, one contractor, one nurse, one housewife, and two students in the family.

Q.33) Which of the following is definitely a group of male members?

  1. BF
  2. BFE
  3. BFA
  4. BE


Q.34) Which of the following are two married couples?

  1. DF and BE
  2. DF and AB
  3. DE and CF
  4. DF and AC


Q.35) B’s father is 26 years younger than B’s grandfather and 29 years older than B. The sum of the ages of all the three is 135 years. What is the age of B’s grandfather?

  1. 17 years
  2. 46 years
  3. 58 years
  4. 72 years

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

  1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

  2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

  3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.

What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

  1. Lack of information
  2. Lack of analytical ability
  3. Silly mistakes
  4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

  1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
  2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
  3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
  4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!

Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. 


SOLUTION- Download Here



  • Ranks and Cut off will be calculated for the entries in the given form only. Cut Off will be released around 10PM and Rank List will be announced soon.
  • Top 10 performers will be selected by finding the average ranks of entire 60 Days Programme and they would get FREE GUIDANCE and MENTORSHIP from IASbaba’s Core Team.
1 Mansi 56
2 Shubam Singhla 52
3 Santosh Kumar 50
4 Vinay 48
4 CSK 48
5 Nidhi 47.33
7 Sankar S 46.67
8 Ravi kumar Singh 46.34
9 Naveen 46
9 Montey 46
10 Rakshitha 45
11 Tarunkumar M N 44.67
12 Swati Jindal 44
12 Jayashankar 44
13 sweta 42.7
15 Rajesh Naidu 40.66
16 Ayaan pathan 39.8
17 Vinay Tripathi 39.33
17 Preeti Sinha 39.32
18 Sadhana 38
19 Priyanshi Goel 37.33
20 Suresh 37
21 s.mishra 36
21 Manigandan 36
22 SUMAN bhainsora 35
24 Amisha 31.38
25 ASHISH 30.67

All the Best! 




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