IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan, Rapid Revision Series (RaRe)
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The 60 Days Rapid Revision (RaRe) Series is IASbaba’s Flagship Initiative recommended by Toppers and loved by the aspirants’ community every year.
It is the most comprehensive program which will help you complete the syllabus, revise and practice tests on a daily basis. The Programme on a daily basis includes
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Consider the following statements:
- An amendment can be initiated either by minister or a private member and requires a prior permission from president.
- The procedure of amendment of the constitution is borrowed from the South Africa and it is inserted in part XXI of the constitution.
- A time frame has been prescribed in the constitution for states to ratify the amendment bill.
Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- Amending the Constitution of India is the process of making changes to the nation’s fundamental law or supreme law. The procedure of amendment in the constitution is laid down in Part XX (Article 368) of the Constitution of India. This procedure ensures the sanctity of the Constitution of India and keeps a check on arbitrary power of the Parliament of India. It was borrowed from the South African constitution.
- Procedure for amendment of constitution:
- Amendment can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either house of the Parliament.
- The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require the permission of the President.
- The bill must be passed in each house by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the house and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the house present and voting
- Each house must pass the bill separately. If there is any disagreement, there is no provision for joint sitting of the houses
- If the bill seeks to amend the provisions of the constitution, it must be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority
- After passage of the bill by both the houses, it is presented to the President for his assent
- The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament
- After the President’s assent, the bill becomes an act.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- Amending the Constitution of India is the process of making changes to the nation’s fundamental law or supreme law. The procedure of amendment in the constitution is laid down in Part XX (Article 368) of the Constitution of India. This procedure ensures the sanctity of the Constitution of India and keeps a check on arbitrary power of the Parliament of India. It was borrowed from the South African constitution.
- Procedure for amendment of constitution:
- Amendment can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either house of the Parliament.
- The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require the permission of the President.
- The bill must be passed in each house by a special majority, that is, a majority of the total membership of the house and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the house present and voting
- Each house must pass the bill separately. If there is any disagreement, there is no provision for joint sitting of the houses
- If the bill seeks to amend the provisions of the constitution, it must be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority
- After passage of the bill by both the houses, it is presented to the President for his assent
- The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament
- After the President’s assent, the bill becomes an act.
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Consider the following pairs:
- Article 371A – Karnataka
- Article 371B – Assam
- Article371F – Sikkim
- Article 371H – Arunachal Pradesh.
How many pairs given above is/are correctly matched?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Article 371 of the Constitution includes “special provisions” for 11 states, including six states of the Northeast.
- Articles 370 and 371 were part of the Constitution at the time of its commencement on January 26, 1950; Articles 371A through 371J were incorporated subsequently.
- Article 371, Maharashtra and Gujarat: Governor has “special responsibility” to establish “separate development boards” for “Vidarbha, Marathwada, and the rest of Maharashtra”, and Saurashtra and Kutch in Gujarat; ensure “equitable allocation of funds for developmental expenditure over the said areas”, and “equitable arrangement providing adequate facilities for technical education and vocational training, and adequate opportunities for employment” under the state government.
- Article 371A (13th Amendment Act, 1962)Nagaland:Inserted after a 16-point agreement between the Centre and the Naga People’s Convention in 1960, which led to the creation of Nagaland in 1963.
- Parliament cannot legislate in matters of Naga religion or social practices, Naga customary law and procedure, administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Naga customary law, and ownership and transfer of land without concurrence of the state Assembly.
- Article 371B (22nd Amendment Act, 1969), Assam:
- The President may provide for the constitution and functions of a committee of the Assembly consisting of members elected from the state’s tribal areas.
- Article 371C (27th Amendment Act, 1971), Manipur:
- The President may provide for the constitution of a committee of elected members from the Hill areas in the Assembly, and entrust “special responsibility” to the Governor to ensure its proper functioning.
- Article 371D (32nd Amendment Act, 1973; substituted by The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014), Andhra Pradesh and Telangana:
- President must ensure “equitable opportunities and facilities” in “public employment and education to people from different parts of the state”. He may require the state government to organise “any class or classes of posts in a civil service of, or any class or classes of civil posts under, the State into different local cadres for different parts of the State”. He has similar powers vis-à-vis admissions in educational institutions.
- Article 371E: Allows for the establishment of a university in Andhra Pradesh by a law of Parliament. But this is not a “special provision” in the sense of the others in this part.
- Article 371F (36th Amendment Act, 1975), Sikkim:The members of the Legislative Assembly of Sikkim shall elect the representative of Sikkim in the House of the People. To protect the rights and interests of various sections of the population of Sikkim, Parliament may provide for the number of seats in the Assembly, which may be filled only by candidates from those sections.
- Article 371G (53rd Amendment Act, 1986), Mizoram:
- Parliament cannot make laws on “religious or social practices of the Mizos, Mizo customary law and procedure, administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Mizo customary law, ownership and transfer of land… unless the Assembly… so decides”.
- Article 371H (55th Amendment Act, 1986), Arunachal Pradesh:
- The Governor has a special responsibility with regard to law and order, and “he shall, after consulting the Council of Ministers, exercise his individual judgment as to the action to be taken”.
- Article 371J (98th Amendment Act, 2012), Karnataka:
- There is a provision for a separate development board for the Hyderabad-Karnataka region. There shall be “equitable allocation of funds for developmental expenditure over the said region”, and “equitable opportunities and facilities” for people of this region in government jobs and education. A proportion of seats in educational institutions and state government jobs in Hyderabad-Karnataka can be reserved for individuals from that region.
- Article 371I deals with Goa, but it does not include any provision that can be deemed ‘special’.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Article 371 of the Constitution includes “special provisions” for 11 states, including six states of the Northeast.
- Articles 370 and 371 were part of the Constitution at the time of its commencement on January 26, 1950; Articles 371A through 371J were incorporated subsequently.
- Article 371, Maharashtra and Gujarat: Governor has “special responsibility” to establish “separate development boards” for “Vidarbha, Marathwada, and the rest of Maharashtra”, and Saurashtra and Kutch in Gujarat; ensure “equitable allocation of funds for developmental expenditure over the said areas”, and “equitable arrangement providing adequate facilities for technical education and vocational training, and adequate opportunities for employment” under the state government.
- Article 371A (13th Amendment Act, 1962)Nagaland:Inserted after a 16-point agreement between the Centre and the Naga People’s Convention in 1960, which led to the creation of Nagaland in 1963.
- Parliament cannot legislate in matters of Naga religion or social practices, Naga customary law and procedure, administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Naga customary law, and ownership and transfer of land without concurrence of the state Assembly.
- Article 371B (22nd Amendment Act, 1969), Assam:
- The President may provide for the constitution and functions of a committee of the Assembly consisting of members elected from the state’s tribal areas.
- Article 371C (27th Amendment Act, 1971), Manipur:
- The President may provide for the constitution of a committee of elected members from the Hill areas in the Assembly, and entrust “special responsibility” to the Governor to ensure its proper functioning.
- Article 371D (32nd Amendment Act, 1973; substituted by The Andhra Pradesh Reorganisation Act, 2014), Andhra Pradesh and Telangana:
- President must ensure “equitable opportunities and facilities” in “public employment and education to people from different parts of the state”. He may require the state government to organise “any class or classes of posts in a civil service of, or any class or classes of civil posts under, the State into different local cadres for different parts of the State”. He has similar powers vis-à-vis admissions in educational institutions.
- Article 371E: Allows for the establishment of a university in Andhra Pradesh by a law of Parliament. But this is not a “special provision” in the sense of the others in this part.
- Article 371F (36th Amendment Act, 1975), Sikkim:The members of the Legislative Assembly of Sikkim shall elect the representative of Sikkim in the House of the People. To protect the rights and interests of various sections of the population of Sikkim, Parliament may provide for the number of seats in the Assembly, which may be filled only by candidates from those sections.
- Article 371G (53rd Amendment Act, 1986), Mizoram:
- Parliament cannot make laws on “religious or social practices of the Mizos, Mizo customary law and procedure, administration of civil and criminal justice involving decisions according to Mizo customary law, ownership and transfer of land… unless the Assembly… so decides”.
- Article 371H (55th Amendment Act, 1986), Arunachal Pradesh:
- The Governor has a special responsibility with regard to law and order, and “he shall, after consulting the Council of Ministers, exercise his individual judgment as to the action to be taken”.
- Article 371J (98th Amendment Act, 2012), Karnataka:
- There is a provision for a separate development board for the Hyderabad-Karnataka region. There shall be “equitable allocation of funds for developmental expenditure over the said region”, and “equitable opportunities and facilities” for people of this region in government jobs and education. A proportion of seats in educational institutions and state government jobs in Hyderabad-Karnataka can be reserved for individuals from that region.
- Article 371I deals with Goa, but it does not include any provision that can be deemed ‘special’.
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
which of the following statements with regard to the election of the president of India is/are correct?
- Value of the vote of an MLA differs from one state to another.
- Value of the vote of an MP is same in every state.
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Both 1 and 2 are correct.
- Statement1: The value of the vote of an MLA is calculated by dividing the population of the state as per 1971 census. So it differs from state to state.
- Statement2: Value of the vote of an MP remains same for every state because the value of the states is divided by the total number of elected members of the parliament.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Both 1 and 2 are correct.
- Statement1: The value of the vote of an MLA is calculated by dividing the population of the state as per 1971 census. So it differs from state to state.
- Statement2: Value of the vote of an MP remains same for every state because the value of the states is divided by the total number of elected members of the parliament.
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Which of the following provisions is related to 69th constitution amendment act?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- The 69th amendment to the Constitution of India inserted Article 239AA, which declared the Union Territory of Delhi to be administered by a L-G who works on aid and advice of the elected legislative assembly.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- The 69th amendment to the Constitution of India inserted Article 239AA, which declared the Union Territory of Delhi to be administered by a L-G who works on aid and advice of the elected legislative assembly.
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Article 74(1) is mandatory of the president to get aid and advice of the council of ministers for his executive power
- Article 123 deals with the ordinance making power of the President.
- The Veto Power of the President of India is guided by Article 111 of the Indian Constitution.
- The salaries and allowance of the ministers shall be determined by president.
Which of the statements given above are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- Statement 4 is incorrect- The salaries and allowance of the ministers shall be determined by parliament.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- Statement 4 is incorrect- The salaries and allowance of the ministers shall be determined by parliament.
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Consider the following statements:
- The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
- The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed 15% of the total members present in the Lok Sabha.
Which of the above given statements is/ are correct?
Correct
Solution: (c)
Explanation:
- The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President under Article 74 and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
- The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers, shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha under Article 75(1A). Hence both 1 and 2 are correct.
Incorrect
Solution: (c)
Explanation:
- The Prime Minister shall be appointed by the President under Article 74 and the other Ministers shall be appointed by the President on the advice of the Prime Minister.
- The total number of ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers, shall not exceed 15% of the total strength of the Lok Sabha under Article 75(1A). Hence both 1 and 2 are correct.
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Consider the following statements:
- The term of the Vice President has been mentioned in the constitution.
- Hamid Ansari was the only vice-president who have got a second term in office.
- Vice-president is picked only by the MPs both elected and nominated members through a system of proportional representation.
Which of the statements given above are incorrect?
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- The vice president has a term of 5 years from the date on which he enters upon his office has been mentioned in the constitution under the article 67.Hence option 1 is correct.
- Hamid Ansari was the only vice-president who have got a second term in office from 2007-2017. Hence option 2 is correct.
- As per Article 66 of the Constitution of India, the Vice-President is elected by the members of the Electoral College consists of: Elected members of Rajya Sabha, Nominated members of Rajya Sabha .Elected members of Lok Sabha. Hence option 3 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- The vice president has a term of 5 years from the date on which he enters upon his office has been mentioned in the constitution under the article 67.Hence option 1 is correct.
- Hamid Ansari was the only vice-president who have got a second term in office from 2007-2017. Hence option 2 is correct.
- As per Article 66 of the Constitution of India, the Vice-President is elected by the members of the Electoral College consists of: Elected members of Rajya Sabha, Nominated members of Rajya Sabha .Elected members of Lok Sabha. Hence option 3 is correct.
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?
- The president and governor do not have concurrent jurisdiction for suspension, remission, and commutation of death sentence.
- The president and the governor can grant pardon only if a person has already been punished.
Choose the correct option:
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 incorrect: The president and governor have concurrent jurisdiction for suspension, remission, and commutation of death sentence.
- Statement 2 correct: The president and the governor can grant pardon only in case a person has already been punished. So, if someone surrenders and asks for pardon, he might not avail the same.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 incorrect: The president and governor have concurrent jurisdiction for suspension, remission, and commutation of death sentence.
- Statement 2 correct: The president and the governor can grant pardon only in case a person has already been punished. So, if someone surrenders and asks for pardon, he might not avail the same.
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
consider the following statements:
- Indian constitution does not explicitly grant any discretionary powers to the president of India.
- President cannot directly reject a state legislation.
Which of the above statements is/ are correct?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Indian constitution does not explicitly grant any discretionary powers to the president of India. The president is expressly required by Article 74 of the constitution to always have a council of ministers to aid and advice and always to act in accordance with its advice in exercise of one’s functions. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Governor has to reserve a bill for the president’s consideration. Only after having reserved a bill, disallowance of state legislature by the president is possible. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Indian constitution does not explicitly grant any discretionary powers to the president of India. The president is expressly required by Article 74 of the constitution to always have a council of ministers to aid and advice and always to act in accordance with its advice in exercise of one’s functions. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Governor has to reserve a bill for the president’s consideration. Only after having reserved a bill, disallowance of state legislature by the president is possible. Hence statement 2 is correct.
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Who needs to give approval for extending supreme court bench to other places of India?
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Article 130 – The Supreme Court shall sit in Delhi or in such other place or places, as the chief justice of India may, with the approval of the president, from time to time, appoint.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Article 130 – The Supreme Court shall sit in Delhi or in such other place or places, as the chief justice of India may, with the approval of the president, from time to time, appoint.
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
” He is one of the vice-presidents of India. He is the first and only vice-president to serve during the terms of three presidents. He is the longest serving vice-president of India”.
The above given para is talking about:
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Mohammad Hamid Ansari is the first and only Indian vice-president to serve during the terms of three presidents. He served during the tenure of Parthiba Patel, Pranab mukherjee, Ramnath Kovind. He is the longest serving vice-president of India. He served two terms from 2007-2002 and 2012-2017.
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Mohammad Hamid Ansari is the first and only Indian vice-president to serve during the terms of three presidents. He served during the tenure of Parthiba Patel, Pranab mukherjee, Ramnath Kovind. He is the longest serving vice-president of India. He served two terms from 2007-2002 and 2012-2017.
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
The nomination of a candidate for election to the office of Vice-President must be subscribed by at least:
Correct
Solution: (c)
Explanation:
- Vice-President of India is elected in a similar way to that of the President, by the system of Proportional Representation by means of a single transferable vote using secret ballot.
- Unlike the election of the President, only the elected and nominated members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha participate in the voting process. The members of the State Legislative Assemblies do NOT participate in the voting process like they do for the President.
Incorrect
Solution: (c)
Explanation:
- Vice-President of India is elected in a similar way to that of the President, by the system of Proportional Representation by means of a single transferable vote using secret ballot.
- Unlike the election of the President, only the elected and nominated members of both Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha participate in the voting process. The members of the State Legislative Assemblies do NOT participate in the voting process like they do for the President.
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Consider the following statements.
- It is the sole discretion of the President to choose the Council of Ministers.
- The President can reject the advice of the Council of Ministers.
- The President can ask the Council of Ministers to reconsider the advice given to him by Council of Ministers, but has to act in accordance with the advice that is given after such reconsideration.
- It is the duty of the Prime Minister to communicate to the President any decisions of the council of ministers that is related to the administrative affairs of the Union.
Which of the statements given above are true?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- The Prime Minister does not “directly” appoint the Council of Ministers, but he advices the President on who should be appointed and it is the President who does the task of direct appointing.
- As per Article 75, The President can ask the Council of Ministers to reconsider the advice given to him by Council of Ministers, but has to act in accordance with the advice that is generated after such reconsideration. Hence option 3 is correct.
- Article 78 makes it necessary for the Prime Minister to communicate to the President any decisions of the council of ministers that relate to the administrative affairs of the Union. Hence option 4 is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- The Prime Minister does not “directly” appoint the Council of Ministers, but he advices the President on who should be appointed and it is the President who does the task of direct appointing.
- As per Article 75, The President can ask the Council of Ministers to reconsider the advice given to him by Council of Ministers, but has to act in accordance with the advice that is generated after such reconsideration. Hence option 3 is correct.
- Article 78 makes it necessary for the Prime Minister to communicate to the President any decisions of the council of ministers that relate to the administrative affairs of the Union. Hence option 4 is correct.
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Which of the following statements is/are incorrect.
- The courts cannot inquire into the nature of advice rendered to the President by the ministers
- A person who is NOT a member of either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha can also be appointed as a minister.
- The President administers the oaths to the ministers.
- The President can remove a minister without the advice of the Prime Minister.
Choose the answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:- As per Article 75 of the Constitution, the President can remove the minister ONLY on the advice of the Prime Minister. And a person who is NOT a member of either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha can also be appointed as a minister provided that he/she gets elected/nominated to either Houses of the Parliament within 6 months. Hence option 4 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:- As per Article 75 of the Constitution, the President can remove the minister ONLY on the advice of the Prime Minister. And a person who is NOT a member of either Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha can also be appointed as a minister provided that he/she gets elected/nominated to either Houses of the Parliament within 6 months. Hence option 4 is incorrect.
-
Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Which of the following constitution amendments were made for the reservation of seats for the admission of citizens belonging to schedule caste and schedule tribes and other backward classes in the educational institution?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- In 93rd constitution amendment 2006, the arrangements were made for the reservation of seats for the admission of citizens belonging to schedule caste and schedule tribes and other backward classes in the educational institution. And under the provisions of section 4 of the article 15 of the constitution. Hence option B is correct.
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- In 93rd constitution amendment 2006, the arrangements were made for the reservation of seats for the admission of citizens belonging to schedule caste and schedule tribes and other backward classes in the educational institution. And under the provisions of section 4 of the article 15 of the constitution. Hence option B is correct.
-
Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Minister of state.
- Cabinet minister.
- Deputy Minister.
- Minister of state with independent charge.
Arrange the above in a descending order:
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- Cabinet Ministers-Participates in every meeting of the Cabinet.
- Minister of State with independent charge-He is a Minister of State who does not work under a Cabinet Minister. When any matter concerning his Department is on the agenda of the Cabinet, he is invited to attend the meeting.
- Minister of State-He is a Minister who does not have independent charge of any Department and works under a Cabinet Minister. The work to such Minister is allotted by his Cabinet Minister.
- Deputy Minister-He is a Minister who works under a Cabinet Minister or a Minister of State with independent charge. His work is allotted by the Minister under whom he is working.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- Cabinet Ministers-Participates in every meeting of the Cabinet.
- Minister of State with independent charge-He is a Minister of State who does not work under a Cabinet Minister. When any matter concerning his Department is on the agenda of the Cabinet, he is invited to attend the meeting.
- Minister of State-He is a Minister who does not have independent charge of any Department and works under a Cabinet Minister. The work to such Minister is allotted by his Cabinet Minister.
- Deputy Minister-He is a Minister who works under a Cabinet Minister or a Minister of State with independent charge. His work is allotted by the Minister under whom he is working.
-
Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Consider the following statements:
- In Parliamentary form of government there will be two executives in the government.
- In Presidential form of government there is only one executive.
- Indonesia is follows Parliamentary form of government while South Korea is following presidential form of government.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- Parliamentary System of Government. There are two executives: The nominal executive is the head of state e.g. President while the real executive is the Prime Minister, who is the head of government. Where executive is responsible to its acts and policies. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Presidential System of Government. There is only one executive. In this system, the President is both head of state and government, e.g. USA, South Korea etc. The executive is not responsible to the legislature for its policies and acts. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Indonesia follows a Presidential form of government whereas South Korea follows parliamentary form of government. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- Parliamentary System of Government. There are two executives: The nominal executive is the head of state e.g. President while the real executive is the Prime Minister, who is the head of government. Where executive is responsible to its acts and policies. Hence statement 1 is correct.
- Presidential System of Government. There is only one executive. In this system, the President is both head of state and government, e.g. USA, South Korea etc. The executive is not responsible to the legislature for its policies and acts. Hence statement 2 is correct.
- Indonesia follows a Presidential form of government whereas South Korea follows parliamentary form of government. Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
-
Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Consider the following statements:
- The Parliamentary form, the government is usually very stable.
- In the Presidential form of government, there is no conflict between the legislature and executive.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Solution(c)
Explanation:
Demerits of parliamentary form of government:.
- No separation of powers: Since there is no genuine separation of powers, the legislature cannot always hold the executive responsible. This is especially true if the government has a good majority in the house. Also, because of anti-defection rules, legislators cannot exercise their free will and vote as per their understanding and opinions. They have to follow the party whip.
- Unqualified legislators: The system creates legislators whose intention is to enter the executive only. They are largely unqualified to legislate.
- Instability: Since the governments sustain only as long as they can prove a majority in the house, there is instability if there is no single-largest party after the elections. Coalition governments are generally quite unstable and short-lived. Because of this, the executive has to focus on how to stay in power rather than worry about the state of affairs/welfare of the people. Hence option 1 is incorrect.
- Ministers: The executive should belong to the ruling party. This rules out the hiring of industry experts for the job.
- Failure to take a prompt decision: Since there is no fixed tenure enjoyed by the Council of Ministers, it often hesitates from taking bold and long-term policy decisions.
- Party politics: Party politics is more evident in the parliamentary system where partisan interests drive politicians more than national interests.
- Control by the bureaucracy: Civil servants exercise a lot of power. They advise the ministers on various matters and are also not responsible to the legislature.
Demerits of presidential form of government:
- Less responsible executive: Since the legislature has no hold over the executive and the president, the head of the government can turn authoritarian.
- Deadlocks between executive and legislature: Since there is a more strict separation of powers here, there can be frequent tussles between both arms of the government, especially if the legislature is not dominated by the president’s political party. This can lead to an erosion in efficiency because of wastage of time. Hence option 2 is incorrect.
- Rigid government: Presidential systems are often accused of being rigid. It lacks flexibility.
- Spoils system: The system gives the president sweeping powers of patronage. Here, he can choose executives as per his will. This gives rise to the spoils system where people close to the president (relatives, business associates, etc.) get roles in the government.
Incorrect
Solution(c)
Explanation:
Demerits of parliamentary form of government:.
- No separation of powers: Since there is no genuine separation of powers, the legislature cannot always hold the executive responsible. This is especially true if the government has a good majority in the house. Also, because of anti-defection rules, legislators cannot exercise their free will and vote as per their understanding and opinions. They have to follow the party whip.
- Unqualified legislators: The system creates legislators whose intention is to enter the executive only. They are largely unqualified to legislate.
- Instability: Since the governments sustain only as long as they can prove a majority in the house, there is instability if there is no single-largest party after the elections. Coalition governments are generally quite unstable and short-lived. Because of this, the executive has to focus on how to stay in power rather than worry about the state of affairs/welfare of the people. Hence option 1 is incorrect.
- Ministers: The executive should belong to the ruling party. This rules out the hiring of industry experts for the job.
- Failure to take a prompt decision: Since there is no fixed tenure enjoyed by the Council of Ministers, it often hesitates from taking bold and long-term policy decisions.
- Party politics: Party politics is more evident in the parliamentary system where partisan interests drive politicians more than national interests.
- Control by the bureaucracy: Civil servants exercise a lot of power. They advise the ministers on various matters and are also not responsible to the legislature.
Demerits of presidential form of government:
- Less responsible executive: Since the legislature has no hold over the executive and the president, the head of the government can turn authoritarian.
- Deadlocks between executive and legislature: Since there is a more strict separation of powers here, there can be frequent tussles between both arms of the government, especially if the legislature is not dominated by the president’s political party. This can lead to an erosion in efficiency because of wastage of time. Hence option 2 is incorrect.
- Rigid government: Presidential systems are often accused of being rigid. It lacks flexibility.
- Spoils system: The system gives the president sweeping powers of patronage. Here, he can choose executives as per his will. This gives rise to the spoils system where people close to the president (relatives, business associates, etc.) get roles in the government.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Which of the following are some of the landmark PIL cases in India?
- Vishaka vs. State of Rajasthan
- C. Mehta vs. Union of India
- Kesavananda Bharati vs. State of Kerala
Select the correct answer using the codes below.
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- Kesavananda Bharati vs. the State of Kerala: This was a writ petition under Article32 of the constitution. The idea of PIL did not exist in India then.
- Vishaka vs. State of Rajasthan: This case was against sexual harassment at workplace, brought by Bhanwari Devi to stop the marriage of a one-year-old girl in rural Rajasthan. Five men raped her. She faced numerous problems when she attempted to seek justice. Naina Kapur decided to initiate a PIL to challenge sexual harassment at the workplace in this Supreme Court.
- C. Mehta vs. Union of India: In this case, the court passed three landmark judgments and several orders against polluting industries which were more than 50,000 in the Ganga basin. The court shut down numerous industries and allowed them to reopen only after controlled pollution. In the end, millions of people escaped air and water pollution in the Ganga basin, including eight states in India.
- Hence all the three statements are correct.
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- Kesavananda Bharati vs. the State of Kerala: This was a writ petition under Article32 of the constitution. The idea of PIL did not exist in India then.
- Vishaka vs. State of Rajasthan: This case was against sexual harassment at workplace, brought by Bhanwari Devi to stop the marriage of a one-year-old girl in rural Rajasthan. Five men raped her. She faced numerous problems when she attempted to seek justice. Naina Kapur decided to initiate a PIL to challenge sexual harassment at the workplace in this Supreme Court.
- C. Mehta vs. Union of India: In this case, the court passed three landmark judgments and several orders against polluting industries which were more than 50,000 in the Ganga basin. The court shut down numerous industries and allowed them to reopen only after controlled pollution. In the end, millions of people escaped air and water pollution in the Ganga basin, including eight states in India.
- Hence all the three statements are correct.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Consider the following statements about the current status of the union territory of Jammu Kashmir and Ladakh:
- The flag and constitution of Jammu and Kashmir, as well as the Ranbir Penal Code (RPC), has ceased to exist.
- Indian Penal Code (IPC) is extended to both UTs.
Choose the correct answer using the code given below:
Correct
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- The flag and constitution of Jammu and Kashmir, as well as the Ranbir Penal Code (RPC), cease to exist, with the Indian Penal Code (IPC) now extending to both UTs. Both the statements are correct.
- The Union Territory of J&K will have a 114-member elected Assembly and a Chief Minister whereas the Union territory of Ladakh will be controlled directly by the L-G (i.e., without an Assembly).
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Explanation:
- The flag and constitution of Jammu and Kashmir, as well as the Ranbir Penal Code (RPC), cease to exist, with the Indian Penal Code (IPC) now extending to both UTs. Both the statements are correct.
- The Union Territory of J&K will have a 114-member elected Assembly and a Chief Minister whereas the Union territory of Ladakh will be controlled directly by the L-G (i.e., without an Assembly).
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
Consider the following statements about Indo-Pacific Economic Framework for Prosperity (IPEF)
- Along with India and USA, all ASEAN countries are members to the framework.
- Trade and Tax & Anti-Corruption are among the four pillars of the framework.
- Under the framework developed countries have agreed to provide financial assistance of $100 billion to the developing countries of the framework.
Choose the INCORRECT statements:
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 – Incorrect, The Indo-Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF) was launched by United States (US) President Biden in Tokyo on May 23, 2022. Except Cambodia, Laos and Myanmar, other Southeast Asian nations are a part of the IPEF.
- Statement 2 – Correct, The IPEF has four pillars: Trade; supply chains; clean energy, decarbonisation and infrastructure; tax and anti-corruption.
- Statement 3 – Incorrect, There is no such measure.
Source: CLICK HERE
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 – Incorrect, The Indo-Pacific Economic Framework (IPEF) was launched by United States (US) President Biden in Tokyo on May 23, 2022. Except Cambodia, Laos and Myanmar, other Southeast Asian nations are a part of the IPEF.
- Statement 2 – Correct, The IPEF has four pillars: Trade; supply chains; clean energy, decarbonisation and infrastructure; tax and anti-corruption.
- Statement 3 – Incorrect, There is no such measure.
Source: CLICK HERE
-
Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Consider the following statements
- Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear weapons.
- All the permanent members of the UN Security Council have ratified Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) that bans all nuclear explosions – everywhere, by everyone.
Select the correct statement(s)
Correct
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 – Correct, Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons. The nuclear have-nots successfully negotiated a Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons (TPNW, also called Ban Treaty) in 2017 that entered into force in January 2021. All 86 signatories are nuclear have-nots and parties to the NPT. It is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear weapons, with the goal of leading towards their total elimination.
- Statement 2 – Incorrect, The Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) was concluded in 1996 but has yet to formally enter into force because two major powers, the U.S. and China, have yet to ratify it. The CTBT is the Treaty banning all nuclear explosions – everywhere, by everyone. The Treaty will enter into force after all 44 States listed in Annex 2 to the Treaty will ratify it. These States had nuclear facilities at the time the Treaty was negotiated and adopted.
Source: CLICK HERE
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 – Correct, Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons. The nuclear have-nots successfully negotiated a Treaty on the Prohibition of Nuclear Weapons (TPNW, also called Ban Treaty) in 2017 that entered into force in January 2021. All 86 signatories are nuclear have-nots and parties to the NPT. It is the first legally binding international agreement to comprehensively prohibit nuclear weapons, with the goal of leading towards their total elimination.
- Statement 2 – Incorrect, The Comprehensive Test Ban Treaty (CTBT) was concluded in 1996 but has yet to formally enter into force because two major powers, the U.S. and China, have yet to ratify it. The CTBT is the Treaty banning all nuclear explosions – everywhere, by everyone. The Treaty will enter into force after all 44 States listed in Annex 2 to the Treaty will ratify it. These States had nuclear facilities at the time the Treaty was negotiated and adopted.
Source: CLICK HERE
-
Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Shumang Leela festival, a traditional form of theatre is celebrated in?
Correct
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Shumang Leela is a traditional form of theatre in Manipur and the roles of female artists are all played by male actors and male characters are played by female artists in case of female theatre groups. Shumang Leela Groups of the early stage attempted to preserve and promote humanism, tolerance, confidence, devotion, truth and justice through their performances. The present day Shumang Leelas have been trying to focus on the issues of moral values, unity and integrity.
Source: CLICK HERE
Incorrect
Solution (b)
Explanation:
- Shumang Leela is a traditional form of theatre in Manipur and the roles of female artists are all played by male actors and male characters are played by female artists in case of female theatre groups. Shumang Leela Groups of the early stage attempted to preserve and promote humanism, tolerance, confidence, devotion, truth and justice through their performances. The present day Shumang Leelas have been trying to focus on the issues of moral values, unity and integrity.
Source: CLICK HERE
-
Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Consider the following statements about Martand Temple
- It was built by King Harsha of the first Lohara dynasty in eighth century
- The temple is dedicated to Vishnu-Surya.
- The historical source for Kashmir’s history Rajatarangini, contain descriptions of Martand’s grandeur.
- The temple is influenced by Classical Greco-Roman, Buddhist-Gandharan, and North Indian styles.
Choose the correct statements:
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 – Incorrect, The Martand Temple was built by the Karkota dynasty king Lalitaditya Muktapida, who ruled Kashmir from 725 AD to 753 AD.
- Statement 2 – Correct, Dedicated to Vishnu-Surya, the Martand Temple has three distinct chambers—the mandapa, the garbhagriha, and the antralaya—probably the only three-chambered temple in Kashmir.
- Statement 3 – Correct, A major historical source for Kashmir’s history remains Rajatarangini, written in the 12th century by Kalhana, and various translations of the work contain descriptions of Martand’s grandeur.
- Statement 4 – Correct, The temple is influenced by Classical Greco-Roman, Buddhist-Gandharan, and North Indian styles.
Source: CLICK HERE
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 – Incorrect, The Martand Temple was built by the Karkota dynasty king Lalitaditya Muktapida, who ruled Kashmir from 725 AD to 753 AD.
- Statement 2 – Correct, Dedicated to Vishnu-Surya, the Martand Temple has three distinct chambers—the mandapa, the garbhagriha, and the antralaya—probably the only three-chambered temple in Kashmir.
- Statement 3 – Correct, A major historical source for Kashmir’s history remains Rajatarangini, written in the 12th century by Kalhana, and various translations of the work contain descriptions of Martand’s grandeur.
- Statement 4 – Correct, The temple is influenced by Classical Greco-Roman, Buddhist-Gandharan, and North Indian styles.
Source: CLICK HERE
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Which among the following is/are found at Mohenjodaro?
- Bronze dancing girl
- Seal of Pasupathi
- Great bath
- Steatite statue of beard man
Choose the correct code:
Correct
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Mohenjodaro (Mound of Dead) was excavated by R.D Banerjee in 1922
Important Findings are – Great bath, Granary, Bronze dancing girl, Seal of Pasupathi Mahadeva,
Source: CLICK HERE
Incorrect
Solution (d)
Explanation:
Mohenjodaro (Mound of Dead) was excavated by R.D Banerjee in 1922
Important Findings are – Great bath, Granary, Bronze dancing girl, Seal of Pasupathi Mahadeva,
Source: CLICK HERE
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
John takes twice as much time as Jack to finish a job. Jack and Jim together take one-
thirds of the time to finish the job than John takes working alone. Moreover, in order to
finish the job, John takes three days more than that taken by three of them working
together. In how many days will Jim finish the job working alone?
Correct
Solution (a)
John = x units/day
Jack = 2x units/day
Jim = x units/day (1/3rd of John does = 3x units, out of which jack does 2x)
Total = 4x units/day
John’s time taken = x(n+3) = 4x × n
Then n = 1 day for 4x units
For x units, Jim will take 4 days
Incorrect
Solution (a)
John = x units/day
Jack = 2x units/day
Jim = x units/day (1/3rd of John does = 3x units, out of which jack does 2x)
Total = 4x units/day
John’s time taken = x(n+3) = 4x × n
Then n = 1 day for 4x units
For x units, Jim will take 4 days
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
150 workers were engaged to finish a job in a certain number of days. 4 workers
dropped out on second day, 4 more workers dropped out on third day and so on. It took 8
more days to finish the work. Find the number of days in which the work was completed.
Correct
Solution (c)
Let x be the number of days in which 150 workers finish the work.
According to the given information, 150x = 150 + 146 + 142 + …. (x + 8) terms
The series 150 + 146 + 142 + …. (x + 8) terms is an A.P. with first term 150, common
difference –4 and number of terms as (x + 8)
- 150x = [(x+8)/2] [2*150 + (x+8-1) (-4)]
On solving, we get x = 17
Therefore, originally, the number of days in which the work was completed is 17.
Thus, required number of days = (17 + 8) = 25 days
Incorrect
Solution (c)
Let x be the number of days in which 150 workers finish the work.
According to the given information, 150x = 150 + 146 + 142 + …. (x + 8) terms
The series 150 + 146 + 142 + …. (x + 8) terms is an A.P. with first term 150, common
difference –4 and number of terms as (x + 8)
- 150x = [(x+8)/2] [2*150 + (x+8-1) (-4)]
On solving, we get x = 17
Therefore, originally, the number of days in which the work was completed is 17.
Thus, required number of days = (17 + 8) = 25 days
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
2 women and 5 men can together finish an embroidery work in 4 days, while 3
women and 6 men can finish it in 3 days. Find the time taken by 1 woman alone to finish the
work.
Correct
Solution (a)
Let the number of days taken by a woman and a man be x and y respectively.
Therefore, work done by a woman in 1 day = 1/x
Work done by a man in 1 day = 1/y
According to the question,
-> 4[(2/x) + (5/y)] = 1
->2/x + 5/y = 1/4 -> (1)
-> 3[(3/x) + (6/y) = 1
-> 3/x + 6/y = 1/3-> (2)
On solving both equations 1 and 2, we get x = 18 days and y = 36 days
Hence, number of days taken by a woman = 18
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Let the number of days taken by a woman and a man be x and y respectively.
Therefore, work done by a woman in 1 day = 1/x
Work done by a man in 1 day = 1/y
According to the question,
-> 4[(2/x) + (5/y)] = 1
->2/x + 5/y = 1/4 -> (1)
-> 3[(3/x) + (6/y) = 1
-> 3/x + 6/y = 1/3-> (2)
On solving both equations 1 and 2, we get x = 18 days and y = 36 days
Hence, number of days taken by a woman = 18
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
A can complete a piece of work in 18 days, B in 20 days and C in 30 days, B and C
together start the work and forced to leave after 2 days. What is the time taken by A alone
to complete the remaining work?
Correct
Solution (a)
(B+C)’s 2 day’s work = 2*(1/20+1/30) = 2*(3+2/60) = 1/6 part.
Remaining work = 1-1/6 = 5/6 part
A’s one day’s work = 1/18 part
Time taken to complete the work = (5/6) / (1/18) days
Hence, Time taken to complete the work = (5/6)*18 = 15 days.
Incorrect
Solution (a)
(B+C)’s 2 day’s work = 2*(1/20+1/30) = 2*(3+2/60) = 1/6 part.
Remaining work = 1-1/6 = 5/6 part
A’s one day’s work = 1/18 part
Time taken to complete the work = (5/6) / (1/18) days
Hence, Time taken to complete the work = (5/6)*18 = 15 days.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
Read the following passage and answer the items that follow. Your answer to these
items should be based on the passages only
Passage
At this stage of civilisation, when many nations are brought in to close and vital contact for good and evil, it is essential, as never before, that their gross ignorance of one another
should be diminished, that they should begin to understand a little of one another’s historical experience and resulting mentality. It is the fault of the English to expect the people of other countries to react as they do, to political and international situations. Our genuine goodwill and good intentions are often brought to nothing, because we expect other people to be like us. This would be corrected if we knew the history, not necessarily in detail but in broad outlines, of the social and political conditions which have given to each nation its present character.
As per the passage, The need for a greater understanding between nations
Correct
Solution (a)
Refer to, “…it is essential, as never before, that their gross ignorance of one another should be diminished, that they should begin to understand a little of one another's historical experience and resulting mentality.” This statement makes it clear that option a is the correct answer
Incorrect
Solution (a)
Refer to, “…it is essential, as never before, that their gross ignorance of one another should be diminished, that they should begin to understand a little of one another's historical experience and resulting mentality.” This statement makes it clear that option a is the correct answer
All the Best
IASbaba