IASbaba Daily Prelims Quiz
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The Current Affairs questions are based on sources like ‘The Hindu’, ‘Indian Express’ and ‘PIB’, which are very important sources for UPSC Prelims Exam. The questions are focused on both the concepts and facts. The topics covered here are generally different from what is being covered under ‘Daily Current Affairs/Daily News Analysis (DNA) and Daily Static Quiz’ to avoid duplication. The questions would be published from Monday to Saturday before 2 PM. One should not spend more than 10 minutes on this initiative.
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Question 1 of 5
1. Question
Q.1) According to the analysis of India‘s judicial pendency crisis, district and trial courts account for what percentage of total pending cases, and what is the judge-population ratio recommended by the Law Commission?
Correct
Q.1) Solution (b)
Explanation:
Over 4.92 crore cases are pending in district and trial courts, which represents approximately 88% of total case pendency across all courts (Supreme Court accounts for only 0.14% of total pendency with ~93,000 cases).- The Law Commission (1987) recommended a judge-population ratio of 50 judges per million population.
- India currently has roughly 19 judges per million population – far below the recommended ratio. Even the Law Commission‘s 245th Report (2014) suggested at least 40 per million. International comparison: the US and China have approximately 150 judges per million.
- The Supreme Court already disposes of about 90% of cases instituted each year, but adding judges at the apex level alone cannot address the crisis at the district level.
Justice B.V. Nagarathna (2025) stressed that the government must “litigate with restraint and be a model litigator“. Option (b) is correct. UPSC tests this pendency distribution and ratio.
Why this question?
Tests the concentration of pendency (88% at district/trial courts) and the Law Commission’s recommended judge-population ratio – a high-probability static Polity fact.Why important for UPSC?
Judicial reforms and pendency appear in Polity and Governance (Prelims 2015, 2018, 2020, 2022, 2024).PYQ Pattern Link
Similar to 2015 Prelims question on judge-population ratio and law commission recommendations.Incorrect
Q.1) Solution (b)
Explanation:
Over 4.92 crore cases are pending in district and trial courts, which represents approximately 88% of total case pendency across all courts (Supreme Court accounts for only 0.14% of total pendency with ~93,000 cases).- The Law Commission (1987) recommended a judge-population ratio of 50 judges per million population.
- India currently has roughly 19 judges per million population – far below the recommended ratio. Even the Law Commission‘s 245th Report (2014) suggested at least 40 per million. International comparison: the US and China have approximately 150 judges per million.
- The Supreme Court already disposes of about 90% of cases instituted each year, but adding judges at the apex level alone cannot address the crisis at the district level.
Justice B.V. Nagarathna (2025) stressed that the government must “litigate with restraint and be a model litigator“. Option (b) is correct. UPSC tests this pendency distribution and ratio.
Why this question?
Tests the concentration of pendency (88% at district/trial courts) and the Law Commission’s recommended judge-population ratio – a high-probability static Polity fact.Why important for UPSC?
Judicial reforms and pendency appear in Polity and Governance (Prelims 2015, 2018, 2020, 2022, 2024).PYQ Pattern Link
Similar to 2015 Prelims question on judge-population ratio and law commission recommendations. -
Question 2 of 5
2. Question
Q.2) India’s first orbital data centre satellite, named Pathfinder, is being developed by Pixxel in partnership with Sarvam AI. It is expected to launch in Q4 2026. Which of the following statements about Pathfinder is correct?
Correct
Q.2) Solution (b)
Explanation:
- The Pathfinder satellite is a 200 kg class technology demonstrator combining datacenter-grade GPUs with a hyperspectral imaging camera.
- Unlike traditional satellites that capture raw imagery and beam it down for processing (long delays), Pathfinder will analyse data directly in orbit using AI models and transmit only actionable insights back to Earth, significantly reducing latency for applications like early detection of crop diseases and disaster response.
- Pathfinder is being built at Gigapixxel, Pixxel‘s facility in Bengaluru (designed to scale to 100 satellites per year).
- The launch provider will be either ISRO or SpaceX depending on slot availability. Option (b) is correct.
Options (a) and (d) are incorrect – the design processes data in orbit, not geostationary for coverage. Option (c) is incorrect – it is a private sector initiative (Pixxel and Sarvam) under IN-SPACe regulation. UPSC tests this orbital processing feature.
Why this question?
Tests the key feature of orbital data processing (in-orbit AI inference) – a current Science & Tech fact.Why important for UPSC?
Private space sector and AI infrastructure appear in Science & Tech (Prelims 2026 trend).Incorrect
Q.2) Solution (b)
Explanation:
- The Pathfinder satellite is a 200 kg class technology demonstrator combining datacenter-grade GPUs with a hyperspectral imaging camera.
- Unlike traditional satellites that capture raw imagery and beam it down for processing (long delays), Pathfinder will analyse data directly in orbit using AI models and transmit only actionable insights back to Earth, significantly reducing latency for applications like early detection of crop diseases and disaster response.
- Pathfinder is being built at Gigapixxel, Pixxel‘s facility in Bengaluru (designed to scale to 100 satellites per year).
- The launch provider will be either ISRO or SpaceX depending on slot availability. Option (b) is correct.
Options (a) and (d) are incorrect – the design processes data in orbit, not geostationary for coverage. Option (c) is incorrect – it is a private sector initiative (Pixxel and Sarvam) under IN-SPACe regulation. UPSC tests this orbital processing feature.
Why this question?
Tests the key feature of orbital data processing (in-orbit AI inference) – a current Science & Tech fact.Why important for UPSC?
Private space sector and AI infrastructure appear in Science & Tech (Prelims 2026 trend). -
Question 3 of 5
3. Question
Q.3) National Technology Day in India is celebrated annually on May 11 to commemorate which of the following events?
Correct
Q.3) Solution (c)
Explanation:
- National Technology Day is celebrated on May 11 annually to commemorate India‘s technological achievements, most notably the five nuclear tests conducted on May 11 and 13, 1998 (Operation Shakti/Pokhran-II), along with the successful test-firing of the Trishul surface-to-air missile on the same day.
- The first three detonations took place simultaneously at 15:45 hours IST on May 11, 1998.
- The 1998 tests were conducted under the leadership of Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (then Scientific Adviser to the Government of India, later 11th President) and Dr. R. Chidambaram (Chairman, Atomic Energy Commission).
- The 1998 tests followed India‘s first nuclear test, Smiling Buddha (1974). The 2026 celebration marks the 28th anniversary of Pokhran-II. Option (c) is correct. UPSC tests this origin event.
Why this question?
Tests the specific events (Pokhran-II + Trishul) that led to the celebration of National Technology Day – a static Science & Tech and Modern History fact.Why important for UPSC?
India‘s nuclear history and technology milestones appear in Modern History, Defence, and Science & Tech (Prelims 2016, 2018, 2020, 2022).Incorrect
Q.3) Solution (c)
Explanation:
- National Technology Day is celebrated on May 11 annually to commemorate India‘s technological achievements, most notably the five nuclear tests conducted on May 11 and 13, 1998 (Operation Shakti/Pokhran-II), along with the successful test-firing of the Trishul surface-to-air missile on the same day.
- The first three detonations took place simultaneously at 15:45 hours IST on May 11, 1998.
- The 1998 tests were conducted under the leadership of Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam (then Scientific Adviser to the Government of India, later 11th President) and Dr. R. Chidambaram (Chairman, Atomic Energy Commission).
- The 1998 tests followed India‘s first nuclear test, Smiling Buddha (1974). The 2026 celebration marks the 28th anniversary of Pokhran-II. Option (c) is correct. UPSC tests this origin event.
Why this question?
Tests the specific events (Pokhran-II + Trishul) that led to the celebration of National Technology Day – a static Science & Tech and Modern History fact.Why important for UPSC?
India‘s nuclear history and technology milestones appear in Modern History, Defence, and Science & Tech (Prelims 2016, 2018, 2020, 2022). -
Question 4 of 5
4. Question
Q.4) Consider the following statements regarding India‘s traditional puppetry forms:
- Kathputli (string puppets) are predominantly from Rajasthan and were traditionally practised by the Putli Bhats, an itinerant performing community.
- Togalu Gombeyaata is a leather shadow puppetry form of Karnataka, with regional variations such as katabarata (smaller puppets) and kille katarata (larger figures).
- Tholu Bommalata, one of the most elaborate shadow puppetry traditions, is practised in Kerala and uses puppets made from palm leaves.
- The Karnataka Chitrakala Parishad houses a gallery with over 3,000 traditional puppets as part of preservation efforts.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Q.4) Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: Kathputli (string puppets/marionettes) are predominantly from Rajasthan, traditionally practised by the Putli Bhats (itinerant performers who travelled with portable theatres).
- Statement 2 is correct: Togalu Gombeyaata is a leather shadow puppetry form of Karnataka. Regional variations include katabarata (smaller puppets) in Bijapur and Gulbarga, and kille katarata (larger figures) in Bellary and Dharwad.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Tholu Bommalata is practised in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana (not Kerala). Puppets are made from leather (deer, goat, or buffalo hide) – can reach heights of up to eight feet – and the tradition dates back to at least the 12th century, with significant development under the Vijayanagara rulers.
- Statement 4 is correct: In 2007, the Karnataka Chitrakala Parishad established a leather puppetry gallery housing over 3,000 traditional puppets. The Indian Music Experience in Bengaluru also preserves puppetry traditions.
Puppetry traditions have faced decline due to television, cinema, and changing audience preferences, but preservation efforts and renewed interest are helping revive them. Option (a) is correct. UPSC tests this regional distribution.
Why this question?
Tests the regional provenance of Tholu Bommalata (Andhra/Telangana, not Kerala) – a common Art & Culture trap.Why important for UPSC?
Indian puppetry traditions appear in Art & Culture (Prelims 2016, 2018, 2020, 2022).Incorrect
Q.4) Solution (c)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: Kathputli (string puppets/marionettes) are predominantly from Rajasthan, traditionally practised by the Putli Bhats (itinerant performers who travelled with portable theatres).
- Statement 2 is correct: Togalu Gombeyaata is a leather shadow puppetry form of Karnataka. Regional variations include katabarata (smaller puppets) in Bijapur and Gulbarga, and kille katarata (larger figures) in Bellary and Dharwad.
- Statement 3 is incorrect: Tholu Bommalata is practised in Andhra Pradesh and Telangana (not Kerala). Puppets are made from leather (deer, goat, or buffalo hide) – can reach heights of up to eight feet – and the tradition dates back to at least the 12th century, with significant development under the Vijayanagara rulers.
- Statement 4 is correct: In 2007, the Karnataka Chitrakala Parishad established a leather puppetry gallery housing over 3,000 traditional puppets. The Indian Music Experience in Bengaluru also preserves puppetry traditions.
Puppetry traditions have faced decline due to television, cinema, and changing audience preferences, but preservation efforts and renewed interest are helping revive them. Option (a) is correct. UPSC tests this regional distribution.
Why this question?
Tests the regional provenance of Tholu Bommalata (Andhra/Telangana, not Kerala) – a common Art & Culture trap.Why important for UPSC?
Indian puppetry traditions appear in Art & Culture (Prelims 2016, 2018, 2020, 2022). -
Question 5 of 5
5. Question
Q.5) Consider the following statements regarding the transition from MGNREGA to the Viksit Bharat-G RAM G Act, 2025 (effective July 1, 2026):
- The new act increases the employment guarantee from 100 to 125 days per financial year.
- Unemployment allowance must be paid by the Central Government if employment is not provided within 15 days.
- Material expenditure at the district level must not exceed 40% of total expenditure.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Q.5) Solution (a)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The new act increases the statutory guarantee from 100 days (MGNREGA) to 125 days.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Unemployment allowance is payable by the State Government (not Central Government) if employment is not provided within 15 days: one-fourth of the notified wage rate for the first 30 days, and one-half for the remaining period.
- Statement 3 is correct: Material expenditure at the district level must not exceed 40% of total expenditure.
The new act uses face authentication-based attendance and prohibits contractors and heavy machinery. Option (a) is correct. UPSC tests this State vs Central liability distinction.
Why this question?
Tests the unemployment allowance liability (State Government, not Central) – a common fiscal trap.Why important for UPSC?
Rural employment schemes and fiscal federalism appear in Economy and Polity (Prelims 2026 trend).Incorrect
Q.5) Solution (a)
Explanation:
- Statement 1 is correct: The new act increases the statutory guarantee from 100 days (MGNREGA) to 125 days.
- Statement 2 is incorrect: Unemployment allowance is payable by the State Government (not Central Government) if employment is not provided within 15 days: one-fourth of the notified wage rate for the first 30 days, and one-half for the remaining period.
- Statement 3 is correct: Material expenditure at the district level must not exceed 40% of total expenditure.
The new act uses face authentication-based attendance and prohibits contractors and heavy machinery. Option (a) is correct. UPSC tests this State vs Central liability distinction.
Why this question?
Tests the unemployment allowance liability (State Government, not Central) – a common fiscal trap.Why important for UPSC?
Rural employment schemes and fiscal federalism appear in Economy and Polity (Prelims 2026 trend).
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