Solution (b)

Explanation:

• Certain provisions of the Constitution can only be amended by a special majority of the Parliament along with the consent of half of the state legislatures by a simple majority. These include- Distribution of legislative powers between the Union and the states; Election of the President and its manner; Any of the lists in the Seventh Schedule, etc. Hence, 1st and 3rd options are correct. 

• The Directive Principles of State Policy cane be amended by Special Majority of Parliament and do not need consent of states. Hence, 2nd option is not correct. 

The manner of elections to Parliament and state legislatures can be amended by Simple Majority of the Parliament. Hence, 4th option is not correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

• The power to initiate an amendment to the Constitution lies with the Parliament. Hence, unlike in USA, the state legislatures cannot initiate any bill or proposal for amending the Constitution except in one case, that is, passing a resolution requesting the Parliament for the creation or abolition of legislative councils in the states. Here also, the Parliament can either approve or disapprove such a resolution or may not take any action on it. Hence, Statement-I is incorrect.

There is no provision for a special body like Constitutional Convention (as in USA) or Constitutional Assembly for amending the Constitution. The constituent power is vested in the Parliament and only in few cases, in the state legislatures. Hence, Statement-II is correct.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

• Every Constitution in the world provides for certain ways of amendment to adjust itself to the changing conditions and needs. In this regard, the procedure laid down for the amending the US Constitution and the British Constitution is rigid (difficult) and flexible (easy) respectively. Hence, 1st and 2nd pair are not correctly matched.

On the other hand, the Indian Constitution follows a pragmatic approach for amendment which is neither flexible nor rigid but a synthesis of both. Hence, 3rd pair is correctly matched.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The procedure for the amendment of the Constitution as laid down in Article 368 says that- Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill. Hence, statement 1 is INCORRECT.

For a Constitutional Amendment Bill to become an Act, the bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, i.e., majority of the total membership of the House and majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting. There is no requirement that such a bill must be ratified by three-fourths of the states. Hence, statement 2 is also INCORRECT.

Solution (c) 

Explanation: 

• Ministers make a draft for law and a part of Parliament and are also responsible for the implementation. Hence, statement 1 is Correct.

• Parliamentary System of Government reflects the rule of majority. Hence, statement 2 is Correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Article 368 in Part XX of the Constitution deals with the powers of Parliament to amend the Constitution and its procedure. It states that the Parliament may, in exercise of its constituent power can amend any provision of the Constitution in accordance with the procedure laid down for the purpose. However, this power was limited by the Supreme Court through its judgement in the Kesavananda Bharati case (1973) where it held that the Parliament cannot amend those provisions which form the ‘basic structure’ of the Constitution. Hence option c is correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Article 368 provides for only two types of amendments. The first way is to amend the Constitution by special majority of the Parliament. And the second way is through the amendment by special majority of the Parliament and the ratification of half of the state legislatures. Hence the 1st option is incorrect while the 2nd and 3rd options are correct.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

• The procedure for amendment of the Constitution and election of members of Rajya Sabha are borrowed from the South African Constitution. 
• From the US Constitution, the borrowed items include fundamental rights, independence of judiciary, judicial review, impeachment of the president, removal of Supreme Court and high court judges and post of vice president. Hence option b is correct.
• The features of Parliamentary government, Rule of Law, legislative procedure, single citizenship, cabinet system, prerogative writs, parliamentary privileges and bicameralism are taken from the British Constitution.
• The feature of procedure established by law is borrowed from the Japanese Constitution.

Solution (b) 

Explanation: 

• In The Presidential system, the President is both the head of the state and the head of the government. This contrasts with the Parliamentary system (like in India), where the President is the head of state, and the Prime Minister is the head of government. Hence Statement 1 is correct.
• The President appoints the Cabinet or Council of Ministers independently, without needing advice from a Prime Minister. Whereas, in the parliamentary system the president appoints council of ministers on advice of the Prime Minister. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

• Presidents in the presidential system have Qualified vetoes to counter the bills by the legislature. The Qualified veto refers to a veto power that is not absolute and can be overridden by a certain majority in the legislature. In contrast to an absolute veto, where the President’s decision cannot be overturned, a qualified veto can be overridden under specific conditions. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

• The Prime Minister is not elected in India, rather is indirectly appointed. The Prime Minister is appointed by the President, who usually invites the leader of the majority party or coalition in the Lok Sabha (House of the People). The President is indirectly elected by an electoral college consisting of members of both Houses of Parliament and the Legislative Assemblies of the States, but this process does not involve a direct popular vote. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

• The Prime Minister can be a member of either the Lok Sabha (House of the People) or the Rajya Sabha (Council of States). However, if the Prime Minister is not a member of the Lok Sabha at the time of appointment, they must be elected to it within six months. Hence Statement 2 is correct.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

As per the Article 53(1), the executive power of the Union shall be vested in the President and shall be exercised by him either directly or through Officers subordinate to him in accordance with this Constitution. Hence, statement 1 is incorrect.

The Cabinet Secretary is the top-most executive official and senior-most civil servant of the Government of India and he/she is the ex-officio head of the Civil Services Board. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

The President of India is elected indirectly by the Electoral College and it is conducted in accordance with the system of proportional representation by means of single transferable vote. 

The President of India is elected by an electoral college consisting of: 

Elected members of the two Houses of Parliament and Legislative Assemblies of the States 

States Includes national capital territory of Delhi and the Union territory of Pondicherry. 

Do not participate: Nominated members of both the houses of the parliament & of state legislative assemblies and all the members of legislative councils of states liberty. In India the powers of the government are limited by means of the Fundamental Rights enshrined in the Part III of the Indian Constitution, which are essentially given to us against the state actions. 

Value of Vote: The value of votes of MLAs would differ from State to State as it is based on population criterion and population of each state has a different value. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

The value of vote of each MP is the same whether it is Lok Sabha or Rajya Sabha. There shall be uniformity in the scale of representation of the different states at the election of the President as follows: 

Value of vote of an MLA of a state: (Population of state/Total number of elected members of state legislative assembly) * 100 

Value of vote of an MP: (Total value of votes of MLA’s of all states/Total number of elected members parliament) * 100 Hence, statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

If the election of a person as President is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him before the date of such declaration of the Supreme Court are not invalidated and continue to remain in force. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

Where an assembly is dissolved, the members cease to be qualified to vote in Presidential elections, even if fresh elections to the dissolved assembly are not held before the Presidential elections. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

When a bill is sent to the President after it has been passed by the Parliament, he can give his assent to the bill, withhold his assent to the bill or return the bill (if it is not a money bill) for reconsideration of the Parliament. No time limit has been fixed by the Constitution within which the President has to give his/her assent to the bill. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (b) 

Explanation:

Proportional representation, designed to reflect the diverse opinions of an electorate, becomes redundant in nations where a dominant two-party system prevails. Unlike in proportional representation systems where candidates need to secure over 50% of the votes to win, in a two-party setup, this threshold is effectively guaranteed for one of the parties. Thus, the implementation of proportional representation becomes unnecessary in such contexts. Hence, Option (b) is correct answer. 

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Under Article 72 and 161 of the Constitution the President and the Governor have the power to grant Pardons, reprieve, respite or remissions of punishment or to suspend, remit or commute the sentence of any person convicted of any offence. Hence, Option (c) is correct answer.

Test explained

Solution (a)

Explanation:

All doubts and disputes arising with election of the President and vice President are enquired and decided by the Supreme Court of India. Hence, Option (a) is correct answer.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

• The Chairperson of a panchayat at the village level shall be elected in such manner as the Legislature of a State provides. Under Article 243C, all the seats in a Panchayat shall be filled by persons chosen by direct election from territorial constituencies in the Panchayat area. Hence option 3 is correct.

• The Legislature of a State may, by law, provide for the manner of election of the Chairperson of a Municipality. That is, the states may provide for indirect elections as well. Hence options 1 and 2 are not correct.

Solution (a) 

Explanation: 

 Vice President is the second highest office in the constitution after president. Hence statement 1 is correct. 

Dr. Sarvapalli Radhakrishanan was the first to be elected unopposed. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

The subject of ‘local government’ was placed as item 5 under the State list since the inception of the Constitution of India. No transfer has ever taken place. Hence statement 1 is not correct. 

While the 74th Amendment Act of 1992 added a new Twelfth Schedule to the Constitution. This schedule contains eighteen functional items of municipalities. It deals with Article 243-W. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution (c)

Explanation:

The 52nd Amendment Act of 1985 provided for the disqualification of the members of parliament and the state legislatures on the ground of defection from one political party to another and added a new schedule (the 10th schedule) to the constitution. This act is often referred to as the ‘anti-defection law’. Hence statement 1 is correct. 

Any question regarding disqualification arising out of defection is to be decided by the presiding officer of the house. Hence his decision like that of any other tribunal is subject to judicial review on the grounds of malafides, perversity. etc. Hence statement 2 is correct.

Solution (c)

Context:

• Recently, there has been some political remarks on the basis of contesting arguments made by some historians regarding the outcome of Battle of Haldighati. In this context, this battle becomes important from the perspective of UPSC.

Explanation:

• The Battle of Haldighati was fought on 18 June 1576 between the army of Mughal Emperor Akbar and Maharana Pratap of Mewar. Akbar’s army was led by Raja Man Singh I of Amber, while Maharana Pratap was supported mainly by the Bhil tribe in this war. Hence, statement 1 is INCORRECT.

The First Battle of Panipat was fought between the invading forces of Babur and the Lodi Empire, which took place on 21 April 1526 in North India. It marked the beginning of the Mughal Empire. It was one of the earliest battles involving gunpowder firearms and field artillery. Hence, statement 2 is INCORRECT.

Solution (d)

Context:

• Recently, the region of West Asia-North Africa (WANA) has been witnessing one of the world’s worst humanitarian crises. In this context, this entire region becomes important for UPSC from the perspective of mapping.

Explanation:

The West Asia-North Africa (WANA) region is a geopolitical and cultural area that encompasses countries in the western part of Asia and the northern part of Africa. It includes countries like Saudi Arabia, Iran, Iraq, Israel, Syria, Turkey, Yemen, Qatar, Bahrain, Kuwait, Egypt, Libya, Tunisia, Algeria, etc. This region is home to some of the world’s oldest civilizations, including Mesopotamia, Ancient Egypt, and the Persian Empire. Hence, option d is the correct answer.

Solution (d)

Context:

• September marks ‘Poshan Maah 2024’, ana a nationwide celebration was dedicated to promoting nutrition awareness and driving action towards building a healthier India. In this context, the scheme of POSHAN Abhiyaan becomes important for UPSC.

Explanation:

• To curb the malnutrition crises across the country, the Government of India in 2018 launched the POSHAN Abhiyaan (Prime Minister’s Overarching Scheme for Holistic Nutrition) to improve to improve nutritional status of children (0-6 years), adolescent girls, pregnant women, and lactating mothers. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The key elements of the POSHAN Abhiyaan include leveraging technology, fostering collaboration, and promoting behaviour change through public participation. Additionally, the establishment of PoshanVatikas or Nutri-gardens nationwide is a vital aspect, facilitating convenient and cost-effective access to a variety of fruits, vegetables, medicinal plants, and herbs to promote proper nourishment. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The POSHAN Abhiyaan aims to target the unique 1,000-day window of childbirth and pre- and post- delivery support to mothers to reduce malnutrition. Implementation of the POSHAN Abhiyaan is hinged on key pillars of supporting development of services for the vulnerable populations: Technology (ICDS-Computer application software), Convergence Action Planning, Behavioural Change Communication and Capacity Building. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Context:

• According to a statement by the US Department of State, it will partner with the India Semiconductor Mission, Ministry of Electronics and IT, Government of India to explore opportunities to grow and diversify the global semiconductor ecosystem under the International Technology Security and Innovation (ITSI) Fund, created by the CHIPS Act of 2022. In this context, India Semiconductor Mission becomes important for UPSC.

Explanation:

• The India Semiconductor Mission is a comprehensive program for the development of sustainable semiconductor and display ecosystem in the country. It aims to provide financial support to companies investing in semiconductors, display manufacturing and design ecosystem. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The India Semiconductor Mission was launched in 2021 with a total financial outlay of Rs. 76,000 crores under the aegis of the Ministry of Electronics and IT (MeitY). It has been setup as an Independent Business Division within Digital India Corporation having administrative and financial autonomy to formulate and drive India’s long-term strategies for developing semiconductors and display manufacturing facilities and semiconductor design ecosystem. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

Semiconductors are materials which have a conductivity between conductors (generally metals) and non-conductors or insulators (such as ceramics). These are employed in the manufacture of various kinds of electronic devices, including diodes, transistors, and integrated circuits. Germanium and silicon are the most common examples of semiconductors. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

Context:

• Recently, the Union government set up the 23rd Law Commission for three years to identify laws that have become obsolete and can be repealed. In this context, the Law Commission of India becomes important for UPSC.

Explanation:

• The Law Commission of India is a non-statutory body constituted by the Union government. It can be referred to as an ad hoc body, which is constituted for the fulfilment of a particular purpose. It is not defined under the Indian Constitution and works as an advisory body to the Ministry of Law and Justice. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• The Commission is headed by a chairperson, usually a retired Supreme Court judge, and comprises legal experts, academicians, and senior advocates. The members are appointed for a term of three years, during which they focus on different areas of legal reforms. Its recommendations are not binding on the government. Hence, statement 2 is not correct.

• The first pre-independence law commission was established in 1834 by the British Government in India. It was established by the Charter Act of 1833 and was chaired by Lord Macaulay. The first Law Commission of independent India was established in the year 1955 which was headed by M.C. Setalvad. Since the independence of India, there have been 22 Law Commissions. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (b)

Context:

• Recently, it was announced that Jaipur’s UNESCO heritage status will be strengthened with ₹100 crore expenditure on the project. In this context, Jaipur as a UNESCO World Heritage Site becomes important for UPSC.

Explanation:

• The historic fortified city of Jaipur was founded in 1727 by the then Kachwaha Rajput ruler of Amber, Sawai Jai Singh II. The city was established on the plains and built according to a grid plan interpreted in the light of Vedic architecture. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• Sawai Jai Singh II built five astronomical units in North India and named them Jantar Mantar. He built five Jantar Mantar in New Delhi, Ujjain, Jaipur, Mathura, and Varanasi. These days Jai Singh’s observatories at Jaipur, Varanasi, and Ujjain are functional. Only the one at Delhi is not functional and the one at Mathura disappeared a long time ago. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The Jantar Mantar located in Jaipur (not in New Delhi) was completed in 1734 and it was declared as a UNESCO World Heritage Site in 2010. It features the world’s largest stone sundial, and attracts tourists, historians, astronomers, architects, mathematicians, and geographers. Hence, statement 3 is not correct.

Solution (d)

Context:

• Nominations for the Padma Awards-2025 will be closed after 15th September. In this context, questions can be asked by UPSC about Padma Awards in general.

Explanation:

• Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, is announced every year on the occasion of Republic Day except for brief interruption(s) during the years 1978 and 1979 and 1993 to 1997. The award is given in three categories, namely, Padma Vibhushan, Padma Bhushan and Padma Shri. The awards seek to recognise “work of distinction”, and are given for distinguished and exceptional achievements and service in all fields and disciplines such as art, literature and education, sports, medicine, social work, science and engineering, public affairs, civil service, trade and industry among others. Hence, option d is the correct answer.

Solution (d)

Context:

• To discourage hoarding and curb price volatility often sparked by supply disruptions, the government plans to use radiation technology on a large scale to increase shelf life of food items like onions. In this context, the concept of food irradiation becomes relevant for UPSC.

Explanation:

• Food irradiation involves exposing food, whether packaged or in bulk, to ionising radiation in a controlled environment. While the concept of using radiation for food preservation is not new — traditional methods like drying fruits, vegetables, shrubs, meat, fish, etc., under the sun have been used for preservation for centuries — modern interest in food irradiation technology surged after the Codex Alimentarius Commission, part of the Joint Food Standard Programme of the Food and Agricultural Organisation (FAO) of the United Nations, established global standards. Hence, statement 1 is correct.

• The process of food irradiation typically requires just one exposure treatment to achieve the desired effects, which simplifies food safety practices, and contributes to cost savings in the food supply chain. It reduces the risk of food-borne illnesses by eliminating harmful microorganisms. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

This method reduces the risk of food-borne illnesses by eliminating harmful microorganisms. It also prevents spoilage by slowing down the process of decay and minimises food loss by delaying premature ripening, germination, or sprouting. It also reduces the need for chemical preservatives, contributing to a more sustainable food supply chain. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)

Context:

• Recently, India Development Update Report was released by World Bank giving trends about performance of Indian economy. In this context, the basic information about this report becomes important for UPSC.

Explanation:

• The India Development Update Report is released by World Bank. According to World Bank’s latest India Development Update: India’s Trade Opportunities in a Changing Global Context, the Indian economy continues to grow at a healthy pace despite challenging global conditions. But to reach its $1 trillion merchandise exports goal by 2030, India needs to diversify its export basket and leverage global value chains. Hence, option a is the correct answer.

Solution (c)

Context:

• In the wake of the devastating landslides that recently struck Kerala’s Wayanad district, a crucial conversation has emerged around whether subnational entities can seek compensation through the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC)’s Loss and Damage Fund (LDF). In this context, this fund becomes important from the perspective of UPSC.

Explanation:

• The Loss and Damage Fund (LDF) was established at the 2022 United Nations Climate Change Conference, commonly referred to as COP27 in Egypt. Hence, statement 1 is not correct.

• The Loss and Damage Fund (LDF) aims to provide financial support to regions suffering both economic and non-economic losses caused by climate change. These include extreme weather events and slow-onset processes, such as rising sea levels. Hence, statement 2 is correct.

• The Loss and Damage Fund (LDF) is overseen by a Governing Board that determines how the Fund’s resources are disbursed, with the World Bank serving as the interim trustee. Hence, statement 3 is correct.

Solution (a)  

Explanation: 

Assumption 1 is correct: The given assumption is based on the lines “IoT security is vital for  enterprises, as it includes a wide range of techniques, strategies, protocols, and actions that 

IASBABA’S DAY 13-60 DAY PLAN 

aim to mitigate the increasing IoT vulnerabilities of modern businesses.” These lines show  that if IoT is not secured then it may make modern businesses vulnerable to cyber-attacks  which can have serious economic implications. Hence, this assumption is correct as per the  passage.  

Assumption 2 is incorrect: The given assumption is based on the lines “Due to the  unconventional manufacturing of IoT devices and the vast amount of data they handle,  there’s a constant threat of cyber-attacks.” These lines show that IoT is under constant threat  due to unconventional manufacturing of IOT devices, and the huge data they handle. This  does not mean that their data handling capacities are not good. So, to assume that enhancing  data handling capacities is a way to secure IoTs is not correct as per the passage. 

Solution (a)  

Explanation: 

Option (a) is correct: The given option is based on the following lines “Due to the  unconventional manufacturing of IoT devices and the vast amount of data they handle,  there’s a constant threat of cyber-attacks” and “IoT security is vital for enterprises, as it  includes a wide range of techniques, strategies, protocols, and actions that aim to mitigate  the increasing IoT vulnerabilities of modern businesses. For those deploying IoT systems,  hardware security and authentication are critical measures.” It shows that IoT needs to be  secured considering its vulnerability to cyber-attacks. Also, they are vulnerable due to their  large scale manufacturing and the concomitant impact on modern businesses. Hence, their  security is crucial and must be taken seriously. So, it is the most rational inference of the  passage.  

Option (b) is incorrect: This option mentions India, which is not discussed in the passage. So,  this option is beyond the scope of the passage. 

IASBABA’S DAY 13-60 DAY PLAN 

Option (c) is incorrect: The given option seems to be correct, but it is not because the passage  is not pessimistic about the future based on IoT. The author just lays down the challenges  associated with this technology. So, this option is not the best rational inference.  

Option (d) is incorrect: The given option is about the implementation of IoT being easy.  However, the passage is about security challenges in the context of IoT. Whether the  implementation of IoT is easy or not is not discussed in the passage. This option statement is  very general in nature, while the passage is very much focused on the security aspect of IoTs.  Hence, this option is not the most rational inference of the passage. 

Solution (d)  

Explanation 

Let Rudra, Ananya and Chetan be R, A and C respectively.  

So, Efficiency-wise, 2(A+R+C) = 5 + 3 + 4 = 12  

Or (A+R+C) = 6  

C = (A+R+C) – (R + A) = 6 – 5 = 1  

R = (A+R+C) – (A + C) = 6 – 3 = 3  

A = (A+R+C) – (C + R) = 6 – 4 = 2 

So, the number of days in which Rudra can complete the same work = 120/3 = 40 days  

Similarly, the number of days in which Ananya can complete the same work = 120/2 = 60 days  Similarly, the number of days in which Chetan can complete the same work = 120/1 = 120 days  Hence, it is clear that option (d) is the right answer. 

Solution (c) 

Explanation 

These are consecutive terms of an AP. Mean of first 5 such numbers will be third such number,  which is given to be as 39. 

Hence, the series is: 33, 36, 39, 42, 45, 48, 51, 54, 57 and so on. 

Now, mean of all the thirteen numbers = {[(13 -1)/2] + l} th term= 7th term from the start, i.e.  51. Hence, option (c) is the right answer.

Solution (b)  

Explanation 

In 1st figure: (48 + 24) – (35 + 15) = 22  

Similarly in 2nd figure: (39 + 19) – (22 + 17) = 58 – 39 = 19 (Required missing number) Hence,  option (b) is the right answer.