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Hello Friends, 

ARCHIVES OF 60 DAYS

NOTE: IASbaba’s 60 DAY questions will be posted around 10 AM. The solution will be released around 5 PM Daily. 

Let us pledge to make it a big game-changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days! 

Note- Download the OMR Sheet and attempt the questions exactly like UPSC Prelims. After you are done, please post your OMR in the comment section. Once the solution key is released (around 5 PM), cross-check the answers and, comment the marks (you scored) in the same comment thread. This will keep you accountable, responsible and sincere in days to come. 

You can also take part in the discussion with peers.  

S&T [DAY 41] 

Q.1) The term “quantum supremacy” is associated with:

  1. Astronomical phenomenon
  2. A Quantum powered satellite.
  3. Quantum Computing
  4. None of the above

Q.2) What may happen if a black hole of the same mass as the sun were to take the place of the sun?

  1. The Earth and other planets will be destroyed.
  2. Earth and the other planets would orbit the black hole as they orbit the sun now.
  3. Only the Jovian planets will orbit the black hole and others will collapse into the black hole.
  4. None of the above.

Q.3) Which of the following physical quantities is/are part of vector quantities?

  1. Impulse
  2. Power
  3. Change in temperature
  4. Gravitational Potential

Choose appropriate answer:

  1. 1 and 3
  2. 2 only
  3. 2 and 4
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.4) Consider the following statements:

  1. A hydrogen filled balloon works on the principle of Archimedes principle.
  2. A hydrogen filled balloon rises only if its total weight is equal to the weight of air it displaces.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.5) A person feels weightless during –

  1. He is orbiting in a satellite
  2. He is in a free falling lift
  3. He is in an aeroplane flying at a high altitude
  4. He is having ride in a gas filled balloon

Choose appropriate answer:

  1. 2 only
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 3 and 4
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.6) Consider the following statements:

  1. Even though the earth and the moon are about the same distance from the sun, yet on the average the earth is much warmer than the moon because the nights on the moon are much longer.
  2. Stars appear to move from East to West because the universe is moving from East to West.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.7) Compared to the velocity of light, the velocity of radiowaves is:

  1. Smaller
  2. Greater
  3. The same
  4. Depends on the type of radio waves

Q.8) Polarized sunglasses are used to cut glare from sunlight reflected at a glancing angle off cars, water, and other surfaces. Such sunglasses are a practical application of which of the following physical principles?

  1. Brewster’s law
  2. Lenz’s law
  3. Coulomb’s law
  4. Snell’s law

Q.9) Light waves are composed of both electric and magnetic field. This theory is proposed by

  1. Newton’s corpuscular theory
  2. Huygen’s wave theory
  3. Maxwell’s theory of light
  4. Plank’s theory of light

Q.10) When would a human body be most likely to respire anaerobically?

  1. When watching TV
  2. When running a marathon
  3. When asleep
  4. When eating

Q.11) What is a Circumbinary planet?

  1. It is a planet that orbits one star instead of two
  2. It is a planet that orbits two stars instead of one
  3. It is a planet that orbits three stars instead of two
  4. It is a planet that orbits two starts instead of three

Q.12) Cryogenics finds application in

  1. Surgery, Space technology and Magnetic levitation
  2. Telemetry, Space technology and Magnetic levitation
  3. Space technology, Surgery and Telemetry
  4. Surgery, Telemetry and Magnetic levitation

Q.13) When it is said that the element has ‘ductility’, what does it mean?

  1. It can be beaten into thin sheets
  2. It can be drawn into wires
  3. It makes a sonorous sound when it is hit
  4. It can be moulded into any shape after heating

Q.14) Friction is a force that exists between the two surfaces. Which of the following statements are correct about friction?

  1. It always acts opposite to the direction of motion of the body.
  2. It always acts in the direction of motion of the body.
  3. It always acts perpendicular to the motion of the body.
  4. None of the above

Q.15) Consider the following statements:

  1. Human ear can hear the sound only between 20 Hz and 2000 Hz.
  2. Ultrasounds are the medical equipments which use sound of less than 20 Hz.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.16) Because of their portability, size and user friendly nature, induction stoves have become very famous. Consider the following statements regarding induction stoves:

  1. They contain an electric coil which gets heated because of resistance and it heats the vessel.
  2. A cooking vessel must be made of ferromagnetic material like cast iron or stainless steel to be directly used over the stove.

Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.17) The process of transfer of electric charge from a charged object to earth by means of conductor is called Earthing. Almost all plugs in electrical appliances have an earthing wire which is connected to the top pin of a 3 pin plug. You must have observed that the top pin is the longest and the thickest. Why is the earthing pin longest and thickest?

  1. To provide a proper balance to the plug.
  2. The longest top pin acts as a hinge in the socket and prevents the plug to fall.
  3. So that earth pin touches the circuit first and prevent electric shock.
  4. It is thickest so that it conductivity is highest than the other live pins.

Select the code from below:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 3 and 4
  3. 1, 3 and 4
  4. All of the above

Q.18) The process of Total Internal Reflection is involved in which of the following phenomenon?

  1. Mirage
  2. Looming
  3. Shine of a Diamond
  4. Rainbow

Select the code from below:

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 1, 2 and 3
  3. 3 and 4
  4. All of the above

Q.19) Which of the following components of a nuclear reactor are correctly matched with their use?

Component : : Use

  1. Moderator : : Slows down the speed of neutron
  2. Control rod : : Controls the temperature of the reactor
  3. Sheild : : Protects the people surrounding the reactor from radioactivity

Select the code from below:

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 2 and 3

Q.20) Which of the following devices uses thousands of mirrors to focus solar energy at one point (usually focus) to generate heat?

  1. Solar cells
  2. Solar cookers
  3. Solar furnace
  4. Solar heaters

Q.21) The ‘Nord Stream 2’ sometimes seen in news is gas pipeline running under which of the following Sea?

  1. North Sea
  2. Norwegian Sea
  3. Baltic Sea
  4. Adriatic Sea

Q.22) The recently launched open platform ‘SmartCode’ aims to address which of the following?

  1. Inter-State Migration
  2. Fake News Menace
  3. Gender Inequality
  4. Urban Challenges

Q.23) With reference to Automatic Trigger Safeguard Mechanism (ATSM), consider the following statements:

  1. ATSM will protect the country from any sudden or dramatic increase in imports.
  2. Under this mechanism a country can impose safeguard duties on imports automatically at any point of time.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.24) Which of the following Ministry has decided to set up a Digital Intelligence Unit (DIU)?

  1. Ministry of Home Affairs
  2. Ministry of Finance
  3. Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology
  4. Ministry of Communication

Q.25) With reference to the Codex Alimentarius Commission (CAC), consider the following statements:

  1. It is an international cyber security standards body.
  2. It was established by the INTERPOL.
  3. India is one of its members.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 1 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.26) World’s smallest adult reptile was recently discovered in which of the following Hotspots of Biodiversity?

  1. Indo-Burma
  2. Western Ghats and Srilanka
  3. Madagascar and the Indian Ocean Islands
  4. Southwest Australia

Q.27) With reference to Indian modern history, consider the following events:

  1. Vaikom Satyagraha
  2. Chauri Chaura incident
  3. Moplah rebellion
  4. Bardoli Satyagraha

Arrange the above events in their correct chronological order.

  1. 2 – 3 – 1 – 4
  2. 2 – 3 – 4 – 1
  3. 3 – 2 – 1 – 4
  4. 3 – 2 – 4 – 1

Q.28) India’s first ‘Metro-Neo’, a Mass Rapid Transit System will be adopted in which of the following State/UTs?

  1. Maharashtra
  2. Andhra Pradesh
  3. Delhi
  4. West Bengal

Q.29) The Maguri Motapung wetland is an Important Bird Area located near which of the following National Park?

  1. Dibru Saikhowa National Park
  2. Dachigam National Park
  3. Sunderban National Park
  4. Bhitarkanika National Park

Q.30) Consider the following statements regarding the National Safety Council:

  1. It aims to generate, develop and sustain a voluntary movement on Safety, Health, and Environment (SHE) at the national level.
  2. It is an autonomous body set up by the Ministry of Labour and Employment.

Which of the statements given above is/are NOT correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Read the following passages and answer the question that follows the passage. Your answer to these questions should be based on passage only.

Passage 1

Developed countries have made adequate provisions for social security for senior citizens. State insurers (as well as private ones) offer Medicare and pension benefits to people who can no longer earn. In India, with the collapse of the joint family system, the traditional shelter of the elderly has disappeared. And a State faced with a financial crunch is not in a position to provide social security. So, the working population should give serious thought to building a financial base for itself.

Q.31) Which one of the following if it were to happen, weakens the conclusion drawn in the above passage the most?

  1. The investable income of the working population, as a proportion of its total income, will grow in the future
  2. The insurance sector is underdeveloped and trends indicate that it will be extensively privatized in the future
  3. India is on a path of development that will take it to a developed country status, with all its positive and negative implications
  4. If the working population builds a stronger financial base, there will be a revival of the joint family system

Passage 2

Until the end of his first year at school, Cyril retained many of the pleasures and pursuits he had brought with him from home, and he kept an old interest in butterflies and fossils. His grandmother had presented him with a fine bird’s eggs cabinet, but he could never bring himself to risk in climbing trees. Once or twice he dissected dead birds from sheer determination to overcome his horror of the operation. Probably it was his envy of those physically unlike himself that brought on a phase during which he drew massive athletes with thick necks and square shoulders. Again he pitied himself for what he could never be.

Q.32) The reason Why Cyril made drawings of athletes was that

  1. though he admired them, he lacked a fine physique himself
  2. he loved violent exercises
  3. athletics was a passion with him
  4. he had to complete an assignment

Q.33) There are 4 members in a committee. If one of them is replaced by a younger member such that the average age of the committee is as it was 6 years ago. The new member is how many years younger than the member replaced?

  1. 42 years
  2. 24 years
  3. 6 years
  4. None of the above

Q.34) A group of eight students are experimenting in the laboratory. If the average reading of eight students is 35.5, the average reading of first two students is 28 and the average reading of next three students is 36, the reading of 6th student is 8 more than the seventh one and the eighth one is 8 more than the sixth one, then find the reading of the sixth student

  1. 40
  2. 49
  3. 56
  4. 39

Q.35) The average age of 3 children in a family is 20% of the average age of the father and the eldest child. The total age of the mother and the youngest child is 39 years. If the father’s age is 26 years, what is the age of the second child?

  1. 20 years
  2. 15 years
  3. 18 years
  4. Can’t be determined

NOTE- Follow this for Comments

  1. Mention- Time Taken after solving the Test

  2. After the release of Solution, Edit your Comment to Mention-  Correct/Incorrect and Score

  3. 2 Marks for Correct/0.66 minus for Incorrect.

What IMPACT can the ‘60 Day’ have on the final results? We will explain by taking a small example. Imagine you are sitting in the examination hall, appearing in Prelims Paper I. You have attempted 70 questions already but still unsure about a few. Then you stumble upon a question that was asked in 60 Day (and believe us, it has happened to hundreds of students countless times). You choose the right answer and submit your paper hoping for the best! Eventually, you go on to clear Mains as well as Personality Test and secure a good rank as well. When the cut off gets announced by UPSC, you realize that you have scored just one mark more than the cut off! Yes, that one mark can change your life (and it has done so to many of our students in the past). Now, imagine the kind of impact 60 to 80 marks can have! Isn’t that so fascinating to imagine?  

One’s level of preparedness is always different for different subjects. Even within a subject, one’s comfort level may vary with topics. For example, one might be more comfortable in solving questions of Polity than Economics and within Polity also, one might be at ease with questions on fundamental rights than Parliament. The level of comfort and ease that one has with a subject/ topic gets manifested in the examination. However, there is no conscious effort by aspirants to micro analyze these aspects. Now, coming to the second aspect i.e. the mistakes that one commits in answering MCQs, it can be said that there are mainly four reasons behind incorrect responses in the OMR sheet. They are:

  1. Lack of information
  2. Lack of analytical ability
  3. Silly mistakes
  4. Excessive risk-taking

Let’s analyze them one by one:

  1. Lack of information: You simply don’t know the information. You are clueless and that’s why you don’t attempt the question. For example, you may have never come across a regime called the ‘Wassenaar Agreement’ during your preparation and you can’t do much about it. The lack of information is pardonable and rectifiable. You can read more and gather more information. That is within your reach.
  2. Lack of analytical ability: You know the concept but the question is a twisted one and you are not able to apply the concept. For example, in a question asking you to identify the climate type of a region based on certain given parameters like precipitation, temperature, and air density, you might find it difficult to mark the correct option even if you are aware of all the options given in the question! That is clearly a lack of application and you can overcome it by developing a habit of framing questions in your mind while you study any topic.
  3. Silly mistakes: This habit is unpardonable. You know the concept, you become happy, you misread the question, you mark the incorrect answer and you are out of the race! Such mistakes reveal your hurriedness while answering the question. A simple mistake of reading ‘chose the incorrect option’ as ‘chose the correct option’ can destroy your chances. It means that you need to have patience and focus while attempting the paper.
  4. Excessive risk-taking: You are confused between the options and just in order to increase your attempts, you make wild guesses and try your luck only to repent eventually. Risk-taking is an art and one must be very careful while doing the guesswork in confusing questions. If you are not lucky enough, it can spoil your chances.

You will realize that these problems will have different meanings for different people. For example, one might find a lack of information as the main culprit in answering wrong the questions on Culture while in Polity, lack of analytical ability is usually the culprit. The point here is that you must analyse your preparation on these yardsticks by applying them on different subjects/ topics. If one is having a headache, he/ she can’t have the same medicine for fever. Isn’t it.

This is where our revamped ’60 Day’ comes into the picture. It will give you an opportunity to micro analyze your preparation and perform better in the examination.

Finally, it is up to you to take advantage of this framework. We are sure of only one thing- if you follow this program, assess yourself on the basis of the given framework and keep improving your weaker areas, success will be yours.

We are providing you with the right platform, the right guidance, and the right competition. Do you have the right motivation to make full use of this initiative? We think you have. Come, be a part of this initiative and take the first step towards SUCCESS!

Importance of self – tracking:

We could have provided all of you with login id and passwords to monitor your daily performance in the 60-day program.

Instead, a simple and most beautiful way which Disqus provides is profile based commenting!

Yes, we have seen the most successful candidates who have taken the maximum benefit from this program monitoring themselves by commenting on their answers in the box given (Disqus comment). And reviewing their performance themselves once in 10 days on the progress meter. 

DOWNLOAD THE 60 DAYS PLAN 2021

SOLUTION- Download Here

ENTER YOUR PERFORMANCE AND GET YOUR RANK- Click Here

Important:

RANK NAME SCORE
1 Taranpreet kaur 60
2 Vinay 56
3 Naveen 54.67
4 Sankar S 52
5 Montey 50
6 Ravi kumar Singh 48
6 shilpa 48
7 CSK 47.33
8 Mansi 46
8 Santosh Kumar 46
9 Rakshitha 45
10 Shruthika 44.04
11 Mahima Kohli 42.66
12 Shubam Singhla 42
13 s.mishra 40.66
14 SHRUTHI 40
14 Swati Jindal 40
15 Utkarsh Singh 38
16 Tarunkumar M N 37.338
16 TINKU MITTAL 37.33
17 Kriti Khandelwal 34
18 SUMAN bhainsora 32
18 Manigandan 32
19 Ritika Dalal 31.16
20 Sadhana 30

All the Best!

IASbaba

 

 

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