IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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Hello Friends,
The most beloved 60 Days for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019 has finally begun 🙂
Once again the time has come for the battle (Prelims). And who else than your best companion in the last preparatory phase for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019 i.e 60 days plan.
It does not matter how slowly you go as long as you do not stop.
Hope the message given above makes sense to you all.
The productive utilization of this programme demands consistency, honesty, faith and strong determination to be in the process of learning and unlearning. You might not be fully prepared to solve all the questions but the learning and unlearning through these questions will prepare you for the real battle on 2nd June 2019.
You have to unlearn your repetitive mistakes, gut feeling on which you mark doubtful questions. You have to learn new things and also those concepts that you were very sure of but somehow because of traps in the option, got it wrong. You have to learn ‘how to convert knowledge into marks’ (Because most of the times, after ending the exam, you regret making mistakes in known concepts).
Secondly, keep a long distance from following too many things at this point. It will always backfire. Once you are here, put complete faith and follow this initiative along with whatever you were doing. It is very important to consolidate your preparation with many revisions. Simply following many things will leave you in despair. You can cross check this with veterans.
Everything that seems attractive is not productive. You should always go for productivity. Be wise!
Let us pledge to make it a big game changer (better than last year) in the next 60 days of this plan!
Importance of Self – Tracking: Learning from Last Year
Last year, aspirants used to type/post their answers in the comment box on a daily basis. There were huge participation and discussion below the test post. Putting answers in the comment box has been very effective to self-track yourself after updating the score. In the end, you can cross check your performance through Disqus profile.
It was highly effective in the last edition of 60 Days that propelled aspirants to monitor their performance and learn through discussion. Let you solve these questions with full honesty and write your result in the comment box. Interact with peers to know your mistakes.
The importance of this initiative stands time-bound and aggressive reverse engineering to learn the concepts. Many of you must be busy with your own strategy but let us tell you honestly that in the last few months, it is very important to revise and consolidate your learning. Just reading won’t suffice.
So, take out a few hours from your schedule and make it a revision exercise.
How can you make the best use of it?
Be honest to your effort and do not start competing with XYZ aspirants just for the sake of marks. It is more important for you to introspect and check your learning than focusing on others. Try to answer the questions in 25 minutes only.
Do not get into negative feeling that I don’t have enough knowledge to answer these questions. Feel like you are taking the real exam. What would be your response then?
The same will be replicated in the UPSC exam. Here, you get marks only and nothing else matters. So, make effort to know the answers to all questions. Do not cheat 😛
DETAILED MICRO ANALYSIS MATRIX SAMPLE– is given here. You can download this and do an assessment for yourself (the excel sheet must be modified as per this years planning. The provided excel sheet is only for reference). DOWNLOAD
- You can copy paste the same format/modify as per your need in Google Spreadsheet and update it on daily basis.
- Feedback talks about daily test results.
- Follow-up talks about daily target achieved from sources and the number of revisions to do/done and dates. Sources column is to ensure that aspirants do not run behind various sources and follow the same throughout.
Would like to end on this quote:
Either you run the day or the day runs you.
Are you ready? Let’s start!
Important Note
- Don’t forget to post your marks in the comment section. Also, let us know if you enjoyed today’s test 🙂
- You can post your comments in the given format
- (1) Your Score
- (2) Matrix Meter
- (3) New Learning from the Test
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2019 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Q.1) Which of the following are correct procedures for the amendment of the Constitution?
- A bill for the purpose of amendment of constitution cannot be introduced in any state legislature.
- The constitutional amendment bill can be introduced by a private member but requires prior permission of the president.
- President can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.
Choose the correct answer:
Correct
PROCEDURE FOR AMENDMENT
The procedure for the amendment of the Constitution as laid down in Article 368 is as follows:
- An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
- The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president. Hence, statement 2 is wrong.
- The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more than 50 per cent) of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting.
- Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.
- If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting.
- After duly passed by both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, where necessary, the bill is presented to the president for assent.
- The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.
- After the president’s assent, the bill becomes an Act (i.e., a constitutional amen-dment act) and the Constitution stands amended in accordance with the terms of the Act.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 10: Amendment of the Constitution)
Incorrect
PROCEDURE FOR AMENDMENT
The procedure for the amendment of the Constitution as laid down in Article 368 is as follows:
- An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures.
- The bill can be introduced either by a minister or by a private member and does not require prior permission of the president. Hence, statement 2 is wrong.
- The bill must be passed in each House by a special majority, that is, a majority (that is, more than 50 per cent) of the total membership of the House and a majority of two-thirds of the members of the House present and voting.
- Each House must pass the bill separately. In case of a disagreement between the two Houses, there is no provision for holding a joint sitting of the two Houses for the purpose of deliberation and passage of the bill.
- If the bill seeks to amend the federal provisions of the Constitution, it must also be ratified by the legislatures of half of the states by a simple majority, that is, a majority of the members of the House present and voting.
- After duly passed by both the Houses of Parliament and ratified by the state legislatures, where necessary, the bill is presented to the president for assent.
- The president must give his assent to the bill. He can neither withhold his assent to the bill nor return the bill for reconsideration of the Parliament.
- After the president’s assent, the bill becomes an Act (i.e., a constitutional amen-dment act) and the Constitution stands amended in accordance with the terms of the Act.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 10: Amendment of the Constitution)
-
Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Which among the following provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368?
- Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states
- Any Schedule in the Constitution
- Elections to Parliament and state legislatures
- Union territories
- Representation of states in Parliament
Choose the correct answer:
Correct
The following are some of the provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368:
- Admission or establishment of new states.
- Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states.
- Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
- Second Schedule—emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of the president, the governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.
- Quorum in Parliament.
- Rules of procedure in Parliament.
- Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.
- Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court.
- Citizenship—acquisition and termination.
- Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
- Delimitation of constituencies.
- Union territories.
- Fifth Schedule—administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
- Sixth Schedule—administration of tribal areas.
Any amendment to the provision with regard to representation of states in Parliament requires Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States.
Some schedule, for instance, amendments to any lists in the Seventh Schedule need Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States.
Hence, (2) and (5) are not part of provisions which can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 10: Amendment of the Constitution)
Incorrect
The following are some of the provisions in the Constitution can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368:
- Admission or establishment of new states.
- Formation of new states and alteration of areas, boundaries or names of existing states.
- Abolition or creation of legislative councils in states.
- Second Schedule—emoluments, allowances, privileges and so on of the president, the governors, the Speakers, judges, etc.
- Quorum in Parliament.
- Rules of procedure in Parliament.
- Number of puisne judges in the Supreme Court.
- Conferment of more jurisdiction on the Supreme Court.
- Citizenship—acquisition and termination.
- Elections to Parliament and state legislatures.
- Delimitation of constituencies.
- Union territories.
- Fifth Schedule—administration of scheduled areas and scheduled tribes.
- Sixth Schedule—administration of tribal areas.
Any amendment to the provision with regard to representation of states in Parliament requires Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States.
Some schedule, for instance, amendments to any lists in the Seventh Schedule need Special Majority of Parliament and Consent of States.
Hence, (2) and (5) are not part of provisions which can be amended by a simple majority of the two Houses of Parliament outside the scope of Article 368.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 10: Amendment of the Constitution)
-
Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Arrange the below countries with regard to the difficulty level (from difficult to easy) of procedure laid down for its constitutional amendment:
- India
- USA
- Britain
Choose the correct answer:
Correct
Like any other written Constitution, the Constitution of India also provides for its amendment in order to adjust itself to the changing conditions and needs. The procedure laid down for its amendment is neither as easy as in Britain nor as difficult as in USA.
In other words, the Indian Constitution is neither flexible nor rigid but a synthesis of both.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 10: Amendment of the Constitution)
Incorrect
Like any other written Constitution, the Constitution of India also provides for its amendment in order to adjust itself to the changing conditions and needs. The procedure laid down for its amendment is neither as easy as in Britain nor as difficult as in USA.
In other words, the Indian Constitution is neither flexible nor rigid but a synthesis of both.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 10: Amendment of the Constitution)
-
Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Consider the below statements:
- In Indian Constitution, there is no provision for special body like Constitutional Assembly for amending the Constitution.
- The constituent power is vested only in the Parliament.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
Statement (1) is correct as there is no provision for a special body like Constitutional Convention (as in USA) or Constitutional Assembly for amending the Constitution.
Statement (2) is wrong as the constituent power is vested in the Parliament and only in few cases, in the state legislatures.
Major part of the Constitution can be amended by the Parliament alone either by a special majority or by a simple majority. Only in few cases, the consent of the state legislatures is required and that too, only half of them.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 10: Amendment of the Constitution)
Incorrect
Statement (1) is correct as there is no provision for a special body like Constitutional Convention (as in USA) or Constitutional Assembly for amending the Constitution.
Statement (2) is wrong as the constituent power is vested in the Parliament and only in few cases, in the state legislatures.
Major part of the Constitution can be amended by the Parliament alone either by a special majority or by a simple majority. Only in few cases, the consent of the state legislatures is required and that too, only half of them.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 10: Amendment of the Constitution)
-
Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Consider the following statements about the amendment of constitution:
- For amendments which affect the federal provisions of the constitution, the state legislatures can also initiate the amendment.
- President’s recommendation is required in case of amendments relating to Fifth Schedule.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures. Hence, statement (1) is wrong.
There is no provision regarding the- President’s recommendation is required in case of amendments relating to Fifth Schedule. Hence, statement (2) is also wrong.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 10: Amendment of the Constitution)
Incorrect
An amendment of the Constitution can be initiated only by the introduction of a bill for the purpose in either House of Parliament and not in the state legislatures. Hence, statement (1) is wrong.
There is no provision regarding the- President’s recommendation is required in case of amendments relating to Fifth Schedule. Hence, statement (2) is also wrong.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 10: Amendment of the Constitution)
-
Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Which of the following amendments is/are correctly matched?
- 100th Amendment Act – Introduction of Goods and Services Tax (GST)
- 102nd Amendment Act – Establishment of National Commission for Backward Classes
- 110th Amendment Act – Reservation for economically weaker sections of the society
Choose the correct answer:
Correct
101st Constitution Amendment Act (2016) deals with introduction of the Goods and Services Tax (GST), to present the idea of One Nation, One Tax. Hence, statement (1) is wrong.
Constitution (100th Amendment) Act 2015 ratified the land boundary agreement between India and Bangladesh. The act amended the 1st schedule of the constitution to exchange the disputed territories occupied by both the nations in accordance with the 1974 bilateral LBA.
102nd Constitution Amendment Act (2018) deals with Establishment of National Commission for Backward Classes. It dealt with addition of articles 338B, 342A and modification of articles 338, 366.
As of March 2019, there have been 103 amendments to the Constitution of India and 103rd Constitution Amendment Act (2019) deals with Reservation for economically weaker sections of the society. Hence, statement (3) is incorrect. 103rd CAA amended Article 15 and 16.
Source:
- The Hindu or Current Affairs
Incorrect
101st Constitution Amendment Act (2016) deals with introduction of the Goods and Services Tax (GST), to present the idea of One Nation, One Tax. Hence, statement (1) is wrong.
Constitution (100th Amendment) Act 2015 ratified the land boundary agreement between India and Bangladesh. The act amended the 1st schedule of the constitution to exchange the disputed territories occupied by both the nations in accordance with the 1974 bilateral LBA.
102nd Constitution Amendment Act (2018) deals with Establishment of National Commission for Backward Classes. It dealt with addition of articles 338B, 342A and modification of articles 338, 366.
As of March 2019, there have been 103 amendments to the Constitution of India and 103rd Constitution Amendment Act (2019) deals with Reservation for economically weaker sections of the society. Hence, statement (3) is incorrect. 103rd CAA amended Article 15 and 16.
Source:
- The Hindu or Current Affairs
-
Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Consider the following statements/amendments:
- This amendment was passed after revocation of internal emergency in the Country.
- This amendment provided for human rights safeguards and mechanisms to prevent abuse of executive and legislative authority.
- This amendment removed article 31 of Indian Constitution.
The above amendments were done by –
Correct
44th Constitution Amendment Act, 1978:
- It was passed after revocation of internal emergency in the country, primarily to nullify the amendments brought by the 42nd Amendment in 1976.
- It removed articles 31, 257A and 329A. Amended part 12 and schedule 9.
- Provides for human rights safeguards and mechanisms to prevent abuse of executive and legislative authority.
- The 44th amendment seeks to protect the people of India from such an injustice as the fundamental rights are truly necessary.
- It also said that right to property under article 31 of the Constitution is removed from the fundamental rights and is made a legal right.
42nd Amendment Act (also termed “Mini Constitution”) was brought during the National Emergency.
Source:
- The Hindu or Current Affairs
Incorrect
44th Constitution Amendment Act, 1978:
- It was passed after revocation of internal emergency in the country, primarily to nullify the amendments brought by the 42nd Amendment in 1976.
- It removed articles 31, 257A and 329A. Amended part 12 and schedule 9.
- Provides for human rights safeguards and mechanisms to prevent abuse of executive and legislative authority.
- The 44th amendment seeks to protect the people of India from such an injustice as the fundamental rights are truly necessary.
- It also said that right to property under article 31 of the Constitution is removed from the fundamental rights and is made a legal right.
42nd Amendment Act (also termed “Mini Constitution”) was brought during the National Emergency.
Source:
- The Hindu or Current Affairs
-
Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Consider the following statements with regard to special status enjoyed by the State of Jammu and Kashmir:
- Article 370 makes Article 1 and Article 370 itself applicable to the State of Jammu and Kashmir at once and authorises the president to extend other Articles of the Constitution.
- Parliament can declare that Article 370 ceases to be operative or operates with exceptions and modifications, but only on the recommendation of Constituent Assembly of the state.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
The provisions of Article 1 (declaring India as a Union of states and its territory) and this Article (that is, Article 370) are applicable to the State of J&K.
Besides above, the other provisions of the Constitution can be applied to the state with such exceptions and modifications as specified by the President in consultation with the state government or with the concurrence of the state government.
The President can declare that Article 370 ceases to be operative or operates with exceptions and modifications. However, this can be done by the President only on the recommendation of Constituent Assembly of the state. Hence, statement (2) is wrong.
Therefore, Article 370 makes Article 1 and Article 370 itself applicable to the State of J&K at once and authorises the president to extend other Articles to the state.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 32: Special Status of Jammu & Kashmir)
Incorrect
The provisions of Article 1 (declaring India as a Union of states and its territory) and this Article (that is, Article 370) are applicable to the State of J&K.
Besides above, the other provisions of the Constitution can be applied to the state with such exceptions and modifications as specified by the President in consultation with the state government or with the concurrence of the state government.
The President can declare that Article 370 ceases to be operative or operates with exceptions and modifications. However, this can be done by the President only on the recommendation of Constituent Assembly of the state. Hence, statement (2) is wrong.
Therefore, Article 370 makes Article 1 and Article 370 itself applicable to the State of J&K at once and authorises the president to extend other Articles to the state.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 32: Special Status of Jammu & Kashmir)
-
Question 9 of 30
9. Question
Consider the following statements:
- In the case of Jammu and Kashmir, only few items (less than 50%) in the Union List are applicable.
- The ‘residual power’ continues to rest with the State rather than the Union.
- The provisions of the Central Bureau of Intelligence and Investigation and preventive detention do not apply.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
In the case of Jammu and Kashmir, the ‘Union List’ and the ‘Concurrent List’ were initially curtailed to the matters ceded in the Instrument of Accession, but they were later extended with the concurrence of the State Government. The ‘residual power’ continues to rest with the State rather than the Union. According to the State Autonomy Committee, ninety-four of the ninety-seven items in the Union List currently apply to Jammu and Kashmir.
The provisions of the Central Bureau of Intelligence and Investigation and preventive detention do not apply.
Of the ‘Concurrent List’, twenty-six of the forty-seven items apply to Jammu and Kashmir. The items of marriage and divorce, infants and minors, transfer of property other than agricultural land, contracts and torts, bankruptcy, trusts, courts, family planning and charities have been omitted, i.e., the State has exclusive right to legislate on those matters.
Do you know?
- The right to legislate on elections to state bodies also rests with the State.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 32: Special Status of Jammu & Kashmir)
- Introduction to Indian Constitution – D.D.Basu
- The Hindu and Current Affairs
Incorrect
In the case of Jammu and Kashmir, the ‘Union List’ and the ‘Concurrent List’ were initially curtailed to the matters ceded in the Instrument of Accession, but they were later extended with the concurrence of the State Government. The ‘residual power’ continues to rest with the State rather than the Union. According to the State Autonomy Committee, ninety-four of the ninety-seven items in the Union List currently apply to Jammu and Kashmir.
The provisions of the Central Bureau of Intelligence and Investigation and preventive detention do not apply.
Of the ‘Concurrent List’, twenty-six of the forty-seven items apply to Jammu and Kashmir. The items of marriage and divorce, infants and minors, transfer of property other than agricultural land, contracts and torts, bankruptcy, trusts, courts, family planning and charities have been omitted, i.e., the State has exclusive right to legislate on those matters.
Do you know?
- The right to legislate on elections to state bodies also rests with the State.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 32: Special Status of Jammu & Kashmir)
- Introduction to Indian Constitution – D.D.Basu
- The Hindu and Current Affairs
-
Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Consider the below statements:
- Union executive consists of the President, the Vice-President, the Prime Minister and the council of ministers only.
- A minister who is a member of one House of Parliament has the right to speak and vote in the proceedings of the other House also.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
The Union executive consists of the President, the Vice-President, the Prime Minister, the council of ministers and also the attorney general of India. Hence, Statement (1) is wrong.
A minister who is a member of one House of Parliament has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of the other House also, but he can vote only in the House of which he is a member. Hence, Statement (2) is incorrect.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 17: President)
Incorrect
The Union executive consists of the President, the Vice-President, the Prime Minister, the council of ministers and also the attorney general of India. Hence, Statement (1) is wrong.
A minister who is a member of one House of Parliament has the right to speak and to take part in the proceedings of the other House also, but he can vote only in the House of which he is a member. Hence, Statement (2) is incorrect.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 17: President)
-
Question 11 of 30
11. Question
Which of the below statements is/are true with regard to President’s election?
- Election disputes of the President are inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision is final.
- The election of a person as President can only be challenged on the ground that the Electoral College was incomplete.
Choose the correct answer:
Correct
All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the President are inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision is final.
The election of a person as President cannot be challenged on the ground that the electoral college was incomplete (i.e, existence of any vacancy among the members of electoral college).
Do you know?
If the election of a person as President is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him before the date of such declaration of the Supreme Court are not invalidated and continue to remain in force.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 17: President)
Incorrect
All doubts and disputes in connection with election of the President are inquired into and decided by the Supreme Court whose decision is final.
The election of a person as President cannot be challenged on the ground that the electoral college was incomplete (i.e, existence of any vacancy among the members of electoral college).
Do you know?
If the election of a person as President is declared void by the Supreme Court, acts done by him before the date of such declaration of the Supreme Court are not invalidated and continue to remain in force.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 17: President)
-
Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Consider the below statements with regard to President’s impeachment:
- It is a quasi-judicial procedure in the Parliament.
- Nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment.
- Elected members of the legislative assemblies of states and the Union Territories can participate in the impeachment.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The President can be removed from office by a process of impeachment for ‘violation of the Constitution’.
The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. These charges should be signed by one-fourth members of the House (that framed the charges), and a 14 days’ notice should be given to the President. After the impeachment resolution is passed by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership of that House, it is sent to the other House, which should investigate the charges.
The President has the right to appear and to be represented at such investigation. If the other House also sustains the charges and passes the impeachment resolution by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership, then the President stands removed from his office from the date on which the bill is so passed.
Thus, an impeachment is a quasi-judicial procedure in the Parliament. In this context, two things should be noted:
- the nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President though they do not participate in his election;
- the elected members of the legislative assemblies of states and the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry do not participate in the impeachment of the President though they participate in his election. (Hence, statement 2 is wrong)
Do you know?
- No President has so far been impeached.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 17: President)
Incorrect
The President can be removed from office by a process of impeachment for ‘violation of the Constitution’.
The impeachment charges can be initiated by either House of Parliament. These charges should be signed by one-fourth members of the House (that framed the charges), and a 14 days’ notice should be given to the President. After the impeachment resolution is passed by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership of that House, it is sent to the other House, which should investigate the charges.
The President has the right to appear and to be represented at such investigation. If the other House also sustains the charges and passes the impeachment resolution by a majority of two-thirds of the total membership, then the President stands removed from his office from the date on which the bill is so passed.
Thus, an impeachment is a quasi-judicial procedure in the Parliament. In this context, two things should be noted:
- the nominated members of either House of Parliament can participate in the impeachment of the President though they do not participate in his election;
- the elected members of the legislative assemblies of states and the Union Territories of Delhi and Puducherry do not participate in the impeachment of the President though they participate in his election. (Hence, statement 2 is wrong)
Do you know?
- No President has so far been impeached.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 17: President)
-
Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Which among the following bills can be introduced in the Parliament only on the recommendation of the President?
- A bill which varies the meaning of the expression ‘agricultural income’ as defined for the purposes of the enactments relating to Indian income tax.
- A bill which affects the principles on which moneys are or may be distributable to states.
- A bill which imposes or varies any tax or duty in which states are interested.
Choose the correct answer:
Correct
To protect the interest of states in the financial matters, the Constitution lays down that the following bills can be introduced in the Parliament only on the recommendation of the President:
- A bill which imposes or varies any tax or duty in which states are interested;
- A bill which varies the meaning of the expression ‘agricultural income’ as defined for the purposes of the enactments relating to Indian income tax;
- A bill which affects the principles on which moneys are or may be distributable to states; and
- A bill which imposes any surcharge on any specified tax or duty for the purpose of the Centre.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 17: President)
Incorrect
To protect the interest of states in the financial matters, the Constitution lays down that the following bills can be introduced in the Parliament only on the recommendation of the President:
- A bill which imposes or varies any tax or duty in which states are interested;
- A bill which varies the meaning of the expression ‘agricultural income’ as defined for the purposes of the enactments relating to Indian income tax;
- A bill which affects the principles on which moneys are or may be distributable to states; and
- A bill which imposes any surcharge on any specified tax or duty for the purpose of the Centre.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 17: President)
-
Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Consider the below statements about Vice-President:
- When a bill is introduced in Rajya Sabha, the Vice-President decides whether it is a financial bill or money bill.
- Nominated members of both the houses are part of electoral college for the vice presidential election.
- In order to be a Vice-President, a person must be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
Correct
The Vice President of India is also ex officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha. When a bill is introduced in Rajya Sabha, the vice president decides whether it is a financial bill or not. If he is of the opinion, a bill introduced in the Rajya Sabha is a money bill, he would refer the case to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha for deciding it. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
The Vice President is elected indirectly, by an electoral college consisting of members {elected as well as nominated} of both houses of the Parliament. The election of the Vice President is slightly different from the election of the President as the members of state legislatures are not part of the electoral college but the nominated members of both the houses are part of electoral college for the vice presidential election.
While in order to be a President, a person must be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha (House of Peoples), the Vice President must be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 18: Vice President)
Incorrect
The Vice President of India is also ex officio Chairperson of the Rajya Sabha. When a bill is introduced in Rajya Sabha, the vice president decides whether it is a financial bill or not. If he is of the opinion, a bill introduced in the Rajya Sabha is a money bill, he would refer the case to the Speaker of the Lok Sabha for deciding it. Hence, statement (1) is correct.
The Vice President is elected indirectly, by an electoral college consisting of members {elected as well as nominated} of both houses of the Parliament. The election of the Vice President is slightly different from the election of the President as the members of state legislatures are not part of the electoral college but the nominated members of both the houses are part of electoral college for the vice presidential election.
While in order to be a President, a person must be qualified for election as a member of the Lok Sabha (House of Peoples), the Vice President must be qualified for election as a member of the Rajya Sabha (Council of States).
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 18: Vice President)
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Which among the following statements is/are not true about Vice President?
- The Constitution states that the Vice President can be removed but does not list grounds for removal.
- Supreme Court can also remove the Vice President.
- The Vice President is elected indirectly by members of an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament and members of state legislatures.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
The Vice President is elected indirectly, by an electoral college consisting of members {elected as well as nominated} of both houses of the Parliament. The election of the Vice President is slightly different from the election of the President as the members of state legislatures are not part of the electoral college but the nominated members of both the houses are part of electoral college for the vice presidential election. Hence, statement (3) is not true.
The Constitution states that the Vice President can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an effective majority (50% of effective strength of house, here effective strength equals the total number strength minus the number of vacancies) and a simple majority (50% of total members who are present and voting) of the Lok Sabha (Article 67(b)). However, the Constitution does not list grounds for removal.
Supreme Court can also remove the Vice President for committing electoral malpractices and not fulfilling the eligibility criteria for the Rajya Sabha member
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 18: Vice President)
Incorrect
The Vice President is elected indirectly, by an electoral college consisting of members {elected as well as nominated} of both houses of the Parliament. The election of the Vice President is slightly different from the election of the President as the members of state legislatures are not part of the electoral college but the nominated members of both the houses are part of electoral college for the vice presidential election. Hence, statement (3) is not true.
The Constitution states that the Vice President can be removed by a resolution of the Rajya Sabha passed by an effective majority (50% of effective strength of house, here effective strength equals the total number strength minus the number of vacancies) and a simple majority (50% of total members who are present and voting) of the Lok Sabha (Article 67(b)). However, the Constitution does not list grounds for removal.
Supreme Court can also remove the Vice President for committing electoral malpractices and not fulfilling the eligibility criteria for the Rajya Sabha member
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 18: Vice President)
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Which of the statements given below is/are true with regard to the President of India?
- He can summon, prorogue and dissolve both the Houses of the Parliament.
- He can make regulations for the peace, progress and good government of all the Union Territories.
- He can promulgate ordinances when the Parliament is not in session.
Choose the correct code:
Correct
The President is an integral part of the Parliament of India, and enjoys the following legislative powers:
- He can summon or prorogue the Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha (not both the Houses, hence, statement 1 is wrong).
- He can summon a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament, which is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
- He can make regulations for the peace, progress and good government of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu. In the case of Puducherry also, the President can legislate by making regulations but only when the assembly is suspended or dissolved. Hence, statement 2 is also wrong.
- He can promulgate ordinances when the Parliament is not in session. These ordinances must be approved by the Parliament within six weeks from its reassembly. He can also withdraw an ordinance at any time. Therefore, only statement 3 is correct.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 17: President)
Incorrect
The President is an integral part of the Parliament of India, and enjoys the following legislative powers:
- He can summon or prorogue the Parliament and dissolve the Lok Sabha (not both the Houses, hence, statement 1 is wrong).
- He can summon a joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament, which is presided over by the Speaker of the Lok Sabha.
- He can make regulations for the peace, progress and good government of the Andaman and Nicobar Islands, Lakshadweep, Dadra and Nagar Haveli and Daman and Diu. In the case of Puducherry also, the President can legislate by making regulations but only when the assembly is suspended or dissolved. Hence, statement 2 is also wrong.
- He can promulgate ordinances when the Parliament is not in session. These ordinances must be approved by the Parliament within six weeks from its reassembly. He can also withdraw an ordinance at any time. Therefore, only statement 3 is correct.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 17: President)
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Consider the following statements about ‘Article 35A’ of the Constitution of India:
- It empowers Jammu and Kashmir legislature to define state’s “permanent residents” and their special rights and privileges.
- It was added by a 1954 presidential order issued under Article 370
Select the correct statements
Correct
Article 35A of the Indian Constitution is an article that empowers the Jammu and Kashmir state’s legislature to define “permanent residents” of the state and confer on them special rights and privileges in public sector jobs, acquisition of property in the State, scholarships and other public aid and welfare.
The provision mandates that no act of the legislature coming under it can be challenged for violating the Constitution or any other law of the land.
It was added to the constitution through a presidential order of 1954 with the then J&K government’s concurrence.
Article 35A does not allow people from outside the state of Jammu & Kashmir to work, settle or own property in the state.
Source:
- The Hindu, Indian Express and Current Affairs
Incorrect
Article 35A of the Indian Constitution is an article that empowers the Jammu and Kashmir state’s legislature to define “permanent residents” of the state and confer on them special rights and privileges in public sector jobs, acquisition of property in the State, scholarships and other public aid and welfare.
The provision mandates that no act of the legislature coming under it can be challenged for violating the Constitution or any other law of the land.
It was added to the constitution through a presidential order of 1954 with the then J&K government’s concurrence.
Article 35A does not allow people from outside the state of Jammu & Kashmir to work, settle or own property in the state.
Source:
- The Hindu, Indian Express and Current Affairs
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Which of the statements given below is/are true with regard to the Prime Minister?
- He is the leader of the executive of the Government of India.
- Article 75 contains the exact procedure for selection and appointment of Prime Minister.
- He can be a member of any of the two houses of the Parliament of India.
Choose the correct answer:
Correct
The Prime Minister of India is the leader of the executive of the Government of India. The prime minister is also the chief adviser to the President of India and head of the Council of Ministers.
Prime Minister can be a member of any of the two houses of the Parliament of India—the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and the Rajya Sabha (Council of the States)—but has to be a member of the political party or coalition, having a majority in the Lok Sabha.
The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. Article 75 says only that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the president. Hence, statement (2) is wrong.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 19: Prime Minister)
Incorrect
The Prime Minister of India is the leader of the executive of the Government of India. The prime minister is also the chief adviser to the President of India and head of the Council of Ministers.
Prime Minister can be a member of any of the two houses of the Parliament of India—the Lok Sabha (House of the People) and the Rajya Sabha (Council of the States)—but has to be a member of the political party or coalition, having a majority in the Lok Sabha.
The Constitution does not contain any specific procedure for the selection and appointment of the Prime Minister. Article 75 says only that the Prime Minister shall be appointed by the president. Hence, statement (2) is wrong.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 19: Prime Minister)
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Consider the following statements:
- Governor’s rule is imposed on Jammu and Kashmir only, while the President rule on the rest of India.
- President rule is not extended to Jammu And Kashmir State as Governor’s rule is imposed if the constitutional machinery fails in the state.
Choose the correct code from below:
Correct
According to its Constitution, Governor’s rule is imposed under Section 92 for six months after an approval by the President.
In all states of India, the state government’s failure results in President’s rule. Only in J&K Governor’s rule is imposed for six months, but only after the consent of the President of India.
Under the Governor’s rule, the State Assembly is either kept in suspended animation or dissolved.
If it is not possible to revoke Governor’s rule within six months of imposition, the President’s Rule under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution is imposed. There is little practical difference between the two provisions.
Source:
- The Hindu, Indian Express and Current Affairs
Incorrect
According to its Constitution, Governor’s rule is imposed under Section 92 for six months after an approval by the President.
In all states of India, the state government’s failure results in President’s rule. Only in J&K Governor’s rule is imposed for six months, but only after the consent of the President of India.
Under the Governor’s rule, the State Assembly is either kept in suspended animation or dissolved.
If it is not possible to revoke Governor’s rule within six months of imposition, the President’s Rule under Article 356 of the Indian Constitution is imposed. There is little practical difference between the two provisions.
Source:
- The Hindu, Indian Express and Current Affairs
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
In what regard the Centre have special relationship with respect to NCT of Delhi as compared to other states?
- Centre appoints Lieutenant Governor of NCT of Delhi unilaterally while Governor of a State is appointed only after consultation with the Chief Minister of the respective State.
- Chief Minister of NCT of Delhi is appointed by the Lieutenant Governor of NCT of Delhi while the Chief Minister of a State is appointed by the Governor of that State.
Which of the above statement(s) is/are correct?
Correct
Both Lt. Governor and Governors are appointed unilaterally by the Centre. Hence, statement (1) is wrong.
Chief Minister of NCT of Delhi is appointed by the President (not by the lt. governor). Hence, statement (2) is wrong. The other ministers are appointed by the president on the advice of the chief minister. The ministers hold office during the pleasure of the president. The council of ministers is collectively responsible to the assembly.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 33: Special Provisions for Some States)
- The Hindu, Indian Express and Current Affairs
Incorrect
Both Lt. Governor and Governors are appointed unilaterally by the Centre. Hence, statement (1) is wrong.
Chief Minister of NCT of Delhi is appointed by the President (not by the lt. governor). Hence, statement (2) is wrong. The other ministers are appointed by the president on the advice of the chief minister. The ministers hold office during the pleasure of the president. The council of ministers is collectively responsible to the assembly.
Source:
- Indian Polity – M Laxmikanth (Chapter 33: Special Provisions for Some States)
- The Hindu, Indian Express and Current Affairs
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
The ‘Damocles index’ was in news recently. It is published by
Correct
“Damocles” is an early warning indicator of emerging market exchange rate crises. Damocles, when supplemented by a broader assessment of the global economic, political and institutional landscape, can help better assess EM risk.
Read More – https://www.nomuraconnects.com/focused-thinking-posts/damocles-our-early-warning-indicator-of-exchange-rate-crises/
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/markets/seven-countries-at-risk-of-exchange-rate-crises-nomura/article24918851.ece
Incorrect
“Damocles” is an early warning indicator of emerging market exchange rate crises. Damocles, when supplemented by a broader assessment of the global economic, political and institutional landscape, can help better assess EM risk.
Read More – https://www.nomuraconnects.com/focused-thinking-posts/damocles-our-early-warning-indicator-of-exchange-rate-crises/
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/business/markets/seven-countries-at-risk-of-exchange-rate-crises-nomura/article24918851.ece
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
Fighter Aircrafts Manufacturer/Country
- JAS 39 Gripen – United Kingdom
- F 22 Raptor – United States of America
- Panavia Tornado – France
Select the correct code:
Correct
The Panavia Tornado is a family of twin-engine, variable-sweep wing multirole combat aircraft, jointly developed and manufactured by Italy, the United Kingdom, and West Germany.
The Saab JAS 39 Gripen is a light single-engine multirole fighter aircraft manufactured by the Swedish aerospace company Saab.
The Lockheed Martin F-22 Raptor is a fifth-generation, single-seat, twin-engine, all-weather stealth tactical fighter aircraft developed for the United States Air Force (USAF).
Incorrect
The Panavia Tornado is a family of twin-engine, variable-sweep wing multirole combat aircraft, jointly developed and manufactured by Italy, the United Kingdom, and West Germany.
The Saab JAS 39 Gripen is a light single-engine multirole fighter aircraft manufactured by the Swedish aerospace company Saab.
The Lockheed Martin F-22 Raptor is a fifth-generation, single-seat, twin-engine, all-weather stealth tactical fighter aircraft developed for the United States Air Force (USAF).
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
The term ‘Khafz’, refers to
Correct
‘Khafz’ refers to the practice of female circumcision, prevalent in the Dawoodi Bohra sect, which amounts to female genital mutilation (FGM).
Incorrect
‘Khafz’ refers to the practice of female circumcision, prevalent in the Dawoodi Bohra sect, which amounts to female genital mutilation (FGM).
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
‘MINERVA-II1’ was in news recently, in the context of
Correct
MINERVA-II1 becomes world’s first rover to land on the surface of an asteroid. The MINERVA-II1 rovers were carried on Hayabusa2 spacecraft. Both the rovers landed on the surface of asteroid Ryugu.
Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/science/japan-becomes-worlds-first-to-land-rovers-minerva-ii1-on-asteroid-ryugu/future-plans/slideshow/65945708.cms
Incorrect
MINERVA-II1 becomes world’s first rover to land on the surface of an asteroid. The MINERVA-II1 rovers were carried on Hayabusa2 spacecraft. Both the rovers landed on the surface of asteroid Ryugu.
Source: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/science/japan-becomes-worlds-first-to-land-rovers-minerva-ii1-on-asteroid-ryugu/future-plans/slideshow/65945708.cms
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Which of the following pairs is/are correctly matched?
- Lippa-Asra wildlife sanctuary – Jammu and Kashmir
- Raiganj wildlife sanctuary – West Bengal
- Nahargarh Biological Park – Madhya Pradesh
Select the correct code:
Correct
Lippa-Asra wildlife sanctuary – Himachal Pradesh
Raiganj wildlife sanctuary – West Bengal
Nahargarh Biological Park – Rajasthan
Incorrect
Lippa-Asra wildlife sanctuary – Himachal Pradesh
Raiganj wildlife sanctuary – West Bengal
Nahargarh Biological Park – Rajasthan
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRTs)’
- The DRTs functions under the provisions of the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993
- The pecuniary limit for filing application for recovery of debts in the Debts Recovery Tribunals is Rs 50 lakh for banks and financial institutions
Select the correct statements
Correct
The Debts Recovery Tribunals have been established by the Government of India under an Act of Parliament (Act 51 of 1993) for expeditious adjudication and recovery of debts due to banks and financial institutions.
The DRTs function under the provisions of the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993 and as per the Debts Recovery Tribunal (Procedure) Rules, 1993.
Government doubled the pecuniary limit to Rs 20 lakh for filing loan recovery application in the Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRT) by banks and financial institutions.
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/money-and-banking/monetary-limit-for-filing-cases-in-drt-doubled-to-rs-20-lakh/article24884061.ece
Incorrect
The Debts Recovery Tribunals have been established by the Government of India under an Act of Parliament (Act 51 of 1993) for expeditious adjudication and recovery of debts due to banks and financial institutions.
The DRTs function under the provisions of the Recovery of Debts Due to Banks and Financial Institutions Act, 1993 and as per the Debts Recovery Tribunal (Procedure) Rules, 1993.
Government doubled the pecuniary limit to Rs 20 lakh for filing loan recovery application in the Debt Recovery Tribunals (DRT) by banks and financial institutions.
Source: https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/money-and-banking/monetary-limit-for-filing-cases-in-drt-doubled-to-rs-20-lakh/article24884061.ece
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
‘Shyamala Gopinath Panel’ is associated with
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Which of the following is/are correctly matched?
Places in news Country
- Cagayan Philippines
- Chattogram Sri Lanka
- Idlib Iraq
Select the correct code:
Correct
Cagayan – Philippines
Chattogram – Bangladesh
Idlib – Syria
Incorrect
Cagayan – Philippines
Chattogram – Bangladesh
Idlib – Syria
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
The ‘SAVE Consortium’ is associated with
Correct
SAVE is a consortium that coordinates recovery efforts and conservation breeding programmes of vultures across Asia.
Incorrect
SAVE is a consortium that coordinates recovery efforts and conservation breeding programmes of vultures across Asia.
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
What is/are the implication of getting access to ‘CENTRIXS’
- The country will have the privilege to buy uranium from the Nuclear Suppliers Group.
- The country automatically becomes a member of the Nuclear Suppliers Group.
- The military nuclear installations come under the inspection of International Atomic Energy Agency (IAEA)
Select the correct code:
Correct
CENTRIXS
- Combined Enterprise Regional Information Exchange System, or CENTRIXS, which is the secure communication system network of the US.
- India will get access to it as part of COMCASA
- Navy ships with CENTRIXS on board can communicate securely with the U.S. Navy when needed and can benefit from the wider situational picture of the region as they have a large number of ships and aircraft deployed.
- CENTRIXS consists of a collection of coalition wide area networks (WAN) known as ‘enclaves’
- It is a great enabler, allowing ship-to-ship operational dialogue between the two nations in text and web-based formats.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/india-can-track-chinas-ocean-moves-better/article24897825.ece
Incorrect
CENTRIXS
- Combined Enterprise Regional Information Exchange System, or CENTRIXS, which is the secure communication system network of the US.
- India will get access to it as part of COMCASA
- Navy ships with CENTRIXS on board can communicate securely with the U.S. Navy when needed and can benefit from the wider situational picture of the region as they have a large number of ships and aircraft deployed.
- CENTRIXS consists of a collection of coalition wide area networks (WAN) known as ‘enclaves’
- It is a great enabler, allowing ship-to-ship operational dialogue between the two nations in text and web-based formats.
Source: https://www.thehindu.com/todays-paper/tp-national/india-can-track-chinas-ocean-moves-better/article24897825.ece
