IASbaba Prelims 60 Days Plan
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Hello Friends,
Given the fact that the coveted civil services attract lakhs of youngsters to appear in the examination every year, stiff competition is a given! With the experience attained through multiple interactions with thousands of students and mentoring them, we have realised that cracking this examination takes more than just plain learning and application of concepts. It requires emotional management also. In fact, we can put it first in the prerequisites of qualifying this examination. With hardly a month remaining for the preliminary examination, we thought that sharing our experiences and the ways to tackle various scenarios that you must be facing now will help you manage your anxieties and apprehensions.
One thing that we must understand is that we are all different, our problems, priorities and pains are different and therefore the ways and means to address them are also different. You might be facing the same examination as your roommate is; but for both you, the challenges and moods might be different. In the next few paragraphs, we present an exhaustive list of scenarios that you as a candidate might be facing. Please see whether you fit somewhere in this classification. We have also provided the reasons behind the feelings that you might be experiencing in different scenarios and have also tried to give solutions to address them positively. It is also possible that you find yourself in two or even more than two scenarios. We hope that this objective scenario analysis will help you overcome your anxieties and lead to your success eventually.
Scenario 1: You have not yet completed your revision. Wit each passing day, you rewrite your schedule and convince yourself that there is enough time to revise all the subjects. But deep within, you are a bit scared.
Why does it happen: It happens because your emotions are torn between your commitment to excel and reality. You are committed to clear the exam but at the same time have apprehensions that you might lose it eventually. It happens with the majority of candidates (in fact with the top rankers as well!). The major factor could be your overcommitment due to which you covered so many things in the first phase of the study that it is becoming unmanageable to revise them all. The fear of not revising the hard work already done creates even more anxiety! Another reason could, of course, be procrastination. This is a fundamental human trait in the 21st century. With the internet and social media in our hands, we tend to postpone important things in our life.
What can be done: The first and the foremost thing that you need to do is to prioritise. Believe us, it doesn’t take more than 50% of your acquired knowledge to take the form of wisdom. It is wisdom that does the rest. It simply means that an investment in knowledge always pays the best interest. You might not be able to revise everything that you have read in the past few months but still, the wisdom acquired with the help of those readings will sail you through. Therefore, make a fixed time table and stick to it. Prioritise the areas you need to focus without getting too much concerned about the portions that you are going to leave in this process. The second most important thing to do is to stop procrastinating. Do it now, sometimes later becomes never!
Scenario 2: Everything was going fine. You were scoring high marks test after tests and everyone was betting on your preparation and potential. But then, the last few tests have gone haywire. You have lost the sheen and your performance has dropped. You feel that you are losing it now!
Why does it happen: Success makes us complacent. It also makes failures hard to accept. Our mind and emotions get habitual of pride and praise. A departure from the norm makes it difficult to adapt to the new realities. It hurts the confidence and brings a further dip in performance.
What can be done: No success is permanent and no failure is fatal. The mocks that you are appearing in are meant to train you for the ultimate battle. By no stretch of the imagination, they can become the yardstick to decide your performance in the actual examination. Your failure or rather the limited success in the recent tests mean nothing more than a reminder. It simply tells you to be more careful and don’t take things for granted. You are well prepared and only need to focus harder. Don’t lose the momentum now! It will be fatal. Take your failures with a pinch of salt and move on. Neither try too hard nor be listless. Just keep doing your job.
Scenario 3: This is your last attempt and you are in severe stress. You always think about the results. What if you don’t qualify this time too? What will your parents, friends and family think? have you waited your career?
Why does it happen: It happens because we humans are insecure beings. The feeling of insecurity of any kind overpowers our thinking. We start focusing too much on the negative possibilities rather than the positive ones. We start blaming our fate and also lose faith in hard work. Moreover, having spent a considerable amount of time, the feeling of impatience and frustration starts to foster. Lack of security in terms of career makes us uneasy an under-confident.
What can be done: Understand the concept of time zones. Different parts of the world have different times because they lie in different time zones. Human beings are also in their time zones. It simply means that just like sunlight doesn’t come all at once to the entire planet, success also comes at different times for different individuals. What affects your chances however is despondency. What if this is your time right now? What if there is a guarantee of success this time? Don’t lose this opportunity. Give your 100% and hope for the best. If you sail through, nothing can be better and even if you don’t, there are millions of opportunities waiting to be explored.
Scenario 4: This is your first attempt. You know that there are so many experienced players already in competition. You have a feeling that you don’t stand a chance.
Why does it happen: Contrary to the concept of ‘beginner’s advantage’, freshers suffer from the ill-placed syndrome of ‘beginners disadvantage’. They have a feeling that cramming up concepts of UPSC for years can give an individual edge over the others. This is natural as it happens in many other fields also, most notably sports and jobs.
What can be done: How do some sportsmen have the dream debuts? Why do many first-timers crack UPSC in the very first attempt? The answer is simple. If you have the right tools, the right attitude and the right frame of mind, it doesn’t matter if you are a fresher or a veteran; you will always succeed. You have nothing to lose and no one to compete with except yourself. Just focus on improving your own performance without bothering too much about the people around you.
Scenario 5: You see highly intelligent people around yourself. They study in groups and always keep discussing new concepts, some of which just fly over your head. You have a feeling that you don’t have what it takes to become a civil servant.
Why does it happen: We always tend to put ourselves in comparison to others. Even a slight hint of inferiority bewilders us. We start feeling that we can’t compete with the more competent and the smarter lot. We start feeling excluded and that affects our confidence adversely.
What can be done: Even the smartest and the most talented players have been defeated by the consistent ones. Civil services examination requires consistency in efforts and a willingness to better ourselves. If one goes on to make others as the benchmark, he is bound to get lost in the process. The best thing to do is to stay true to your commitment, strive hard with each passing day and hour and keep improving your abilities. Believe us, success shall be yours.
Scenario 6: You are scared of numbers. Can you succeed by competing lakhs of students? You didn’t even feature in the top 20% of your class in the school/ college! How can you be there in the top 0.5% of the candidates appearing in the examination?
Why does it happen: We get overwhelmed by numbers. India is a country of millions of jobless youth competing neck to neck with each other to get their dream jobs. It is natural to be scared of such stiff competition.
What can be done: A reality check will soothe your senses. Of the lakhs that appear in the preliminary examination, the ones who are actually prepared and hold some potential might only be thousands in number. Moreover, they are all facing the same competition. They are all equally scared of the numbers. You are not alone in this fear. The more you overcome this fear, the better are your chances to succeed.
Scenario 7: Everything is going great. You are high on confidence. You have firm belief in your abilities and hard work. You are sure to crack this examination.
Why does it happen: Hard work and a high level of preparedness give confidence. But it can also lead to overconfidence which can be fatal for you. Many times, brilliant candidates peak much before the actual examination and falter on the ‘D day’.
What can be done: Don’t let your performance peak right now. Remain humble and wait for the right time to give your best performance. There are many like you who are confident of clearing the examination. You have to compete with them and the best way to do it is by not letting your confidence corrupt your senses.
Scenario 8: You are appearing this year just to measure the depth of waters. You will come stronger and better prepared next year. You simply want to have a “feel” of this examination.
Why does it happen: This again is a natural human tendency. Many a time, we don’t give the full throttle fearing failure. We keep convincing ourselves that we have the potential to succeed and we will definitely taste success one day. This escapist tendency might actually be harmful sometimes.
What can be done: Don’t appear in the examination if you aren’t fully prepared. Examination as a process seeps into your intellectual faculties and can cause irreversible harm by affecting your confidence. You won’t even realise it and it will break your spirits. So it is better to stay away from such wishful thinking. If at all, you want to have the “feel”, it would be much better if you attempt the paper at home after the examination.
So, where do you find yourself? It’s perfectly fine to be scared or anxious. We are all human beings. But at the same time, we must have the intelligence to tackle our emotions and move in the right direction.
Success is what we want and success is what we should work for!
All the Best
IASbaba Team
Are you ready? Let’s start!
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The following Test is based on the syllabus of 60 Days Plan-2019 for UPSC IAS Prelims 2019.
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Question 1 of 30
1. Question
Consider the following statements
- The Second International Conference on Nutrition (ICN2) was jointly organized by Food and Agricultural Organization (FAO) and World Health Organization (WHO).
- Rome Declaration on Nutrition is one of the outcomes of the ICN2.
- 2010-2020 is the United Nations Decade of Action on Nutrition.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
The Second International Conference on Nutrition (ICN2) was an inclusive inter-governmental meeting on nutrition held at FAO Headquarters, in Rome, 19-21 November 2014 and jointly organized by FAO and the World Health Organization (WHO), in cooperation with the High Level Task Force on the Global Food Security Crisis (HLTF), IFAD, IFPRI, UNESCO, UNICEF, World Bank, WFP and the WTO.
The main outcomes of the high-level ministerial conference were the Rome Declaration on Nutrition and the Framework for Action, a political commitment document and a flexible policy framework, respectively, which aim to address today’s major nutrition challenges and identify priorities for enhanced international cooperation on nutrition.
Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct.
The Nutrition Decade was established under the normative framework of the Second International Conference on Nutrition (ICN2) held in November 2014 and the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development endorsed in 2015.
2016-2025 is the United Nations Decade of Action on Nutrition.
Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
Incorrect
The Second International Conference on Nutrition (ICN2) was an inclusive inter-governmental meeting on nutrition held at FAO Headquarters, in Rome, 19-21 November 2014 and jointly organized by FAO and the World Health Organization (WHO), in cooperation with the High Level Task Force on the Global Food Security Crisis (HLTF), IFAD, IFPRI, UNESCO, UNICEF, World Bank, WFP and the WTO.
The main outcomes of the high-level ministerial conference were the Rome Declaration on Nutrition and the Framework for Action, a political commitment document and a flexible policy framework, respectively, which aim to address today’s major nutrition challenges and identify priorities for enhanced international cooperation on nutrition.
Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct.
The Nutrition Decade was established under the normative framework of the Second International Conference on Nutrition (ICN2) held in November 2014 and the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development endorsed in 2015.
2016-2025 is the United Nations Decade of Action on Nutrition.
Hence statement 3 is incorrect.
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Question 2 of 30
2. Question
Consider the following statements
- The Bonn Challenge is a global effort to bring 150 million hectares of the world’s deforested and degraded land into restoration by 2020.
- IUCN was one of the partners that launched Bonn Challenge.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
The Bonn Challenge is a global effort to bring 150 million hectares of the world’s deforested and degraded land into restoration by 2020, and 350 million hectares by 2030.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
It was launched in 2011 by the Government of Germany and IUCN, and later endorsed and extended by the New York Declaration on Forests at the 2014 UN Climate Summit.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Additional Information:
Underlying the Bonn Challenge is the forest landscape restoration (FLR) approach, which aims to restore ecological integrity at the same time as improving human well-being through multifunctional landscapes.
The Bonn Challenge is not a new global commitment but rather a practical means of realizing many existing international commitments, including the CBD Aichi Target 15, the UNFCCC REDD+ goal, and the Rio+20 land degradation neutrality goal.
Incorrect
The Bonn Challenge is a global effort to bring 150 million hectares of the world’s deforested and degraded land into restoration by 2020, and 350 million hectares by 2030.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
It was launched in 2011 by the Government of Germany and IUCN, and later endorsed and extended by the New York Declaration on Forests at the 2014 UN Climate Summit.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Additional Information:
Underlying the Bonn Challenge is the forest landscape restoration (FLR) approach, which aims to restore ecological integrity at the same time as improving human well-being through multifunctional landscapes.
The Bonn Challenge is not a new global commitment but rather a practical means of realizing many existing international commitments, including the CBD Aichi Target 15, the UNFCCC REDD+ goal, and the Rio+20 land degradation neutrality goal.
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Question 3 of 30
3. Question
Consider the following statements
- The United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC) Secretariat is located in Paris.
- The UNFCCC Secretariat maintains the registry for Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC) established under the Paris Agreement.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
The UNFCCC secretariat is located in Bonn, Germany.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The UNFCCC Secretariat maintains the registry for Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC) established under the Paris Agreement, a key aspect of implementation of the Paris Agreement.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Additional Information:
The UNFCCC secretariat also supports the Marrakech Partnership for Global Climate Action.
Incorrect
The UNFCCC secretariat is located in Bonn, Germany.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
The UNFCCC Secretariat maintains the registry for Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC) established under the Paris Agreement, a key aspect of implementation of the Paris Agreement.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Additional Information:
The UNFCCC secretariat also supports the Marrakech Partnership for Global Climate Action.
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Question 4 of 30
4. Question
Consider the following statements
- The Nairobi Framework Partnership (NFP) was established to increase participation in Clean Development Mechanism (CDM).
- Nairobi Framework Partnership (NFP) supports developing countries in preparing and implementing their Nationally Determined Contributions (NDC’s).
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
The NFP was established by then UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan in 2006 to increase participation in the CDM, especially in sub-Saharan Africa.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
In January 2016 in Copenhagen, the Nairobi Framework partners revised their Terms of Reference in light of the Paris Climate Change Agreement.
The scope of the NFP was expanded to support the developing countries in preparing and implementing their plans to address climate change, called Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Climate Change Agreement.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
The NFP was established by then UN Secretary-General Kofi Annan in 2006 to increase participation in the CDM, especially in sub-Saharan Africa.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
In January 2016 in Copenhagen, the Nairobi Framework partners revised their Terms of Reference in light of the Paris Climate Change Agreement.
The scope of the NFP was expanded to support the developing countries in preparing and implementing their plans to address climate change, called Nationally Determined Contributions (NDCs) under the Paris Climate Change Agreement.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
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Question 5 of 30
5. Question
Consider the following statements
- The International Emissions Trading Association (IETA) is an inter-governmental organization established under the UNFCCC framework.
- IETA is one of the event partners of Innovate4Climate (I4C).
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
The International Emissions Trading Association (IETA) is a non-profit business association, established in 1999 to serve businesses engaged in market solutions to tackle climate change.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Innovate4Climate (I4C) is an integral part of the global dialogue on climate finance, climate investment, and climate markets. It convenes leaders from business, banking, finance, policy, and technology to think innovatively about how to leverage and direct investment toward low-carbon economies.
IETA is one of the event partners of Innovate4Climate (I4C).
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Additional Information:
IETA is dedicated to the establishment of linked trading systems to ensure efficient and competitive GHG markets. IETA provides thought leadership on the distinct advantages of linked markets by working with premier academics and think-tanks.
2019 will represent the 3rd Edition of I4C.The I4C 2019 summit will focus on three areas where meaningful transformation is possible:
- The power of sustainable clean cooling.
- The promise of battery storage.
- The potential for climate-smart urban development.
Incorrect
The International Emissions Trading Association (IETA) is a non-profit business association, established in 1999 to serve businesses engaged in market solutions to tackle climate change.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Innovate4Climate (I4C) is an integral part of the global dialogue on climate finance, climate investment, and climate markets. It convenes leaders from business, banking, finance, policy, and technology to think innovatively about how to leverage and direct investment toward low-carbon economies.
IETA is one of the event partners of Innovate4Climate (I4C).
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Additional Information:
IETA is dedicated to the establishment of linked trading systems to ensure efficient and competitive GHG markets. IETA provides thought leadership on the distinct advantages of linked markets by working with premier academics and think-tanks.
2019 will represent the 3rd Edition of I4C.The I4C 2019 summit will focus on three areas where meaningful transformation is possible:
- The power of sustainable clean cooling.
- The promise of battery storage.
- The potential for climate-smart urban development.
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Question 6 of 30
6. Question
Consider the following statements
- The theme of 2018 UN Biodiversity conference is “Investing in biodiversity for people and planet.
- The theme of the International Day for Biological Diversity 2019 “Our Biodiversity, Our Food, Our Health”
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
The theme of 2018 UN Biodiversity conference (COP 14- Fourteenth meeting of the Conference of the Parties to the Convention on Biological Diversity) is “Investing in biodiversity for people and planet.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
The United Nations has proclaimed May 22 as “The International Day for Biological Diversity” (IDB) to increase understanding and awareness of biodiversity issues.
The theme of the International Day for Biological Diversity 2019 is: “Our Biodiversity, Our Food, Our Health”. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Note: One must go through the themes of various important international events that had taken place in the last one year.
Incorrect
The theme of 2018 UN Biodiversity conference (COP 14- Fourteenth meeting of the Conference of the Parties to the Convention on Biological Diversity) is “Investing in biodiversity for people and planet.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
The United Nations has proclaimed May 22 as “The International Day for Biological Diversity” (IDB) to increase understanding and awareness of biodiversity issues.
The theme of the International Day for Biological Diversity 2019 is: “Our Biodiversity, Our Food, Our Health”. Hence statement 2 is correct.
Note: One must go through the themes of various important international events that had taken place in the last one year.
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Question 7 of 30
7. Question
Consider the following statements
- Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer has achieved universal ratification.
- India is a party to the Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
The Vienna Convention and its Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer are the first global environmental treaties so far to achieve universal ratification, having been ratified by 197 parties.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
The Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone layer was signed on March 22, 1985 and the Montreal Protocol on substances that deplete the Ozone layer was signed on September 16, 1987. India became Party to the Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer on March 18, 1991 and the Montreal Protocol on substances that deplete the Ozone layer on June 19, 1992.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
The Vienna Convention and its Montreal Protocol on Substances that Deplete the Ozone Layer are the first global environmental treaties so far to achieve universal ratification, having been ratified by 197 parties.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
The Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone layer was signed on March 22, 1985 and the Montreal Protocol on substances that deplete the Ozone layer was signed on September 16, 1987. India became Party to the Vienna Convention for the Protection of the Ozone Layer on March 18, 1991 and the Montreal Protocol on substances that deplete the Ozone layer on June 19, 1992.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
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Question 8 of 30
8. Question
Consider the following statements
- National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP) is executed by Central Pollution Control Board (CPCB).
- Under NAMP five air pollutants have been identified for regular monitoring.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Central Pollution Control Board is executing a nation-wide programme of ambient air quality monitoring known as National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP). The network consists of 731 operating stations covering 312 cities/towns in 29 states and 6 Union Territories of the country.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
Under NAMP, four air pollutants viz ., Sulphur Dioxide (SO2), Oxides of Nitrogen as NO2, Respirable Suspended Particulate Matter (RSPM / PM10) and Fine Particulate Matter (PM2.5) have been identified for regular monitoring at all the locations.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
The monitoring of meteorological parameters such as wind speed and wind direction, relative humidity (RH) and temperature were also integrated with the monitoring of air quality.
Additional Information:
The monitoring is being carried out with the help of Central Pollution Control Board; State Pollution Control Boards; Pollution Control Committees; National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI), Nagpur.
Incorrect
Central Pollution Control Board is executing a nation-wide programme of ambient air quality monitoring known as National Air Quality Monitoring Programme (NAMP). The network consists of 731 operating stations covering 312 cities/towns in 29 states and 6 Union Territories of the country.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
Under NAMP, four air pollutants viz ., Sulphur Dioxide (SO2), Oxides of Nitrogen as NO2, Respirable Suspended Particulate Matter (RSPM / PM10) and Fine Particulate Matter (PM2.5) have been identified for regular monitoring at all the locations.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
The monitoring of meteorological parameters such as wind speed and wind direction, relative humidity (RH) and temperature were also integrated with the monitoring of air quality.
Additional Information:
The monitoring is being carried out with the help of Central Pollution Control Board; State Pollution Control Boards; Pollution Control Committees; National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI), Nagpur.
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Question 9 of 30
9. Question
‘Breathe India’ which is an action plan to combat air pollution is proposed by which of the following institution?
Correct
NITI Aayog has proposed a 15-point formula to combat air pollution. Titled, Breathe India, the NITI Aayog action plan seeks “concerted action from all levels of governance”.
Niti Aayog’s draft plan says that government should increase focus on electric and hybrid vehicles. The procurement of electric vehicles (EVs) should be mandatory for vehicles for central government use and certain public facilities. All central government offices should replace existing fleets older than 15 years to electric vehicles in the next three years, that is, by April, 2021.
The action plan has called for implementing a large scale feebate programme beginning 2020. A feebate is a policy that entails levying a surcharge or fee on inefficient or polluting vehicles and giving a rebate on efficient ones.
Incorrect
NITI Aayog has proposed a 15-point formula to combat air pollution. Titled, Breathe India, the NITI Aayog action plan seeks “concerted action from all levels of governance”.
Niti Aayog’s draft plan says that government should increase focus on electric and hybrid vehicles. The procurement of electric vehicles (EVs) should be mandatory for vehicles for central government use and certain public facilities. All central government offices should replace existing fleets older than 15 years to electric vehicles in the next three years, that is, by April, 2021.
The action plan has called for implementing a large scale feebate programme beginning 2020. A feebate is a policy that entails levying a surcharge or fee on inefficient or polluting vehicles and giving a rebate on efficient ones.
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Question 10 of 30
10. Question
Consider the following statements
- Environmental Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA) is constituted under Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
- EPCA is mandated to enforce Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) in NCR as per the pollution levels.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
Environmental Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA) is constituted under sub-section (1) and (3) of section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
The EPCA was constituted with the objective of protecting and improving the quality of the environment and preventing and controlling the environmental pollution in the NCR.
EPCA is mandated to enforce Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) in NCR as per the pollution levels.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Incorrect
Environmental Pollution (Prevention and Control) Authority (EPCA) is constituted under sub-section (1) and (3) of section 3 of the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
The EPCA was constituted with the objective of protecting and improving the quality of the environment and preventing and controlling the environmental pollution in the NCR.
EPCA is mandated to enforce Graded Response Action Plan (GRAP) in NCR as per the pollution levels.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
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Question 11 of 30
11. Question
The report “Status of Trace and Toxic Metals in Indian Rivers 2018” is released by which of the following?
Correct
The report “Status of Trace and Toxic Metals in Indian Rivers 2018” is released by Central Water Commission (CWC).
A total number of 414 water quality stations covering all the major River Basins of CWC right from East to West and North to South were studied for Trace and Toxic metals.
Iron ranks first among the metals that exceeded their respective acceptable limits on maximum occasions followed by Lead, Chromium, Cadmium, Nickel, and Copper. Exceeding the acceptable limits in Indian River waters by Lead, Cadmium, Nickel, Chromium and Copper are more common in non-monsoon periods while Iron, Lead, Chromium and Copper are the metals whose concentrations have exceeded their tolerance limits in monsoon periods most of the time.
Incorrect
The report “Status of Trace and Toxic Metals in Indian Rivers 2018” is released by Central Water Commission (CWC).
A total number of 414 water quality stations covering all the major River Basins of CWC right from East to West and North to South were studied for Trace and Toxic metals.
Iron ranks first among the metals that exceeded their respective acceptable limits on maximum occasions followed by Lead, Chromium, Cadmium, Nickel, and Copper. Exceeding the acceptable limits in Indian River waters by Lead, Cadmium, Nickel, Chromium and Copper are more common in non-monsoon periods while Iron, Lead, Chromium and Copper are the metals whose concentrations have exceeded their tolerance limits in monsoon periods most of the time.
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Question 12 of 30
12. Question
Consider the following statements
- Alliance to End Plastic Waste is a not-for-profit organization.
- World Business Council for Sustainable Development is a founding strategic partner of Alliance to End plastic Waste.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
The Alliance to End Plastic Waste is a not-for-profit organization that includes companies that make, use, sell, process, collect, and recycle plastics. This includes chemical and plastic manufacturers, consumer goods companies, retailers, converters, and waste management companies, also known as the plastics value chain.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
The Alliance has been working with the World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD) as a founding strategic partner.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Additional Information:
WBCSD is a global, CEO-led organization of over 200 leading businesses working together to accelerate the transition to a sustainable world.
Incorrect
The Alliance to End Plastic Waste is a not-for-profit organization that includes companies that make, use, sell, process, collect, and recycle plastics. This includes chemical and plastic manufacturers, consumer goods companies, retailers, converters, and waste management companies, also known as the plastics value chain.
Hence statement 1 is correct.
The Alliance has been working with the World Business Council for Sustainable Development (WBCSD) as a founding strategic partner.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Additional Information:
WBCSD is a global, CEO-led organization of over 200 leading businesses working together to accelerate the transition to a sustainable world.
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Question 13 of 30
13. Question
Which of the following releases the report “EnviStats India 2018”?
Correct
The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, Government of India, has brought out a statistical publication on environment, ‘EnviStats India 2018’.
In 2012, the United Nations Statistical Commission adopted the System of Environmental Economic Accounting (SEEA) – Central Framework as an international statistical standard. EnviStats India 2018 takes this standard into consideration.
Incorrect
The Ministry of Statistics and Programme Implementation, Government of India, has brought out a statistical publication on environment, ‘EnviStats India 2018’.
In 2012, the United Nations Statistical Commission adopted the System of Environmental Economic Accounting (SEEA) – Central Framework as an international statistical standard. EnviStats India 2018 takes this standard into consideration.
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Question 14 of 30
14. Question
Consider the following statements
- The impetus for Joint Forest Management (JFM) programme is provided by the National Forest Policy of 1988.
- JFM Committees are not statutory bodies.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
The Government of India, Ministry of Environment Forests and Climate Change consolidated the intervention on participatory forest management through the National Forest Policy, 1988, and then through enabling guidelines in 1990 on Joint Forest Management (JFM).
Hence statement 1 is correct.
JFM Committees are not statutory bodies, but rather have been constituted under a Government of India resolution of June 1990.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Additional Information:
The conferment of a Community Forest Resource (CFR) right is a substantive statutory right under a Central legislation, the Forest Rights Act, 2006 (FRA).
Incorrect
The Government of India, Ministry of Environment Forests and Climate Change consolidated the intervention on participatory forest management through the National Forest Policy, 1988, and then through enabling guidelines in 1990 on Joint Forest Management (JFM).
Hence statement 1 is correct.
JFM Committees are not statutory bodies, but rather have been constituted under a Government of India resolution of June 1990.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Additional Information:
The conferment of a Community Forest Resource (CFR) right is a substantive statutory right under a Central legislation, the Forest Rights Act, 2006 (FRA).
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Question 15 of 30
15. Question
Consider the following statements
- Gujarat has become the first State in the country to implement the national policy on biofuels 2018.
- Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas is the overall Coordinating Ministry for development of biofuels.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
Rajasthan has become the first State in the country to implement the national policy on biofuels 2018.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas is the overall Coordinating Ministry for development of biofuels.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Additional Information:
It is envisaged to set up a National Biofuel Coordination Committee (NBCC) headed by the Minister, Petroleum and Natural Gas and representatives of concerned Ministries would be the Members of this Committee.
Incorrect
Rajasthan has become the first State in the country to implement the national policy on biofuels 2018.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas is the overall Coordinating Ministry for development of biofuels.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Additional Information:
It is envisaged to set up a National Biofuel Coordination Committee (NBCC) headed by the Minister, Petroleum and Natural Gas and representatives of concerned Ministries would be the Members of this Committee.
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Question 16 of 30
16. Question
Consider the following statements
- The Global Solar Council is an intergovernmental organization.
- National Solar Energy Federation of India (NSEFI) is one of the members of Global Solar Council.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
The Global Solar Council (founded in 2015) is international non-profit association of the national, regional and international associations in solar energy and the world‘s leading corporations.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
National Solar Energy Federation of India (NSEFI) is an umbrella organization of all solar energy stakeholders of India. It is one of the members of Global Solar Council.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Additional Information:
NSEFI Chairman Pranav R Mehta becomes the First Indian to Head Global Solar Council(GSC) headquarters in Washington D.C., USA.
NSEFI is a founding member of the Global Solar Council (GSC) which was launched at Paris during UN COP 21 Climate talks In December 2015-as a private sector response to global warming and Climate Change.
Incorrect
The Global Solar Council (founded in 2015) is international non-profit association of the national, regional and international associations in solar energy and the world‘s leading corporations.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
National Solar Energy Federation of India (NSEFI) is an umbrella organization of all solar energy stakeholders of India. It is one of the members of Global Solar Council.
Hence statement 2 is correct.
Additional Information:
NSEFI Chairman Pranav R Mehta becomes the First Indian to Head Global Solar Council(GSC) headquarters in Washington D.C., USA.
NSEFI is a founding member of the Global Solar Council (GSC) which was launched at Paris during UN COP 21 Climate talks In December 2015-as a private sector response to global warming and Climate Change.
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Question 17 of 30
17. Question
Which of the following is the Honolulu strategy related to
Correct
The Honolulu Strategy is a framework for a comprehensive and global effort to reduce the ecological, human health, and economic impacts of marine debris globally. The Honolulu Strategy is intended for use as a:
- Planning tool for developing or refining spatially or sector-specific marine debris programs and projects
- Common frame of reference for collaboration and sharing of best practices and lessons learned
- Monitoring tool to measure progress across multiple programs and projects
The Fifth International Marine Debris Conference, in March 2011, catalyzed development of the Honolulu Strategy.
Incorrect
The Honolulu Strategy is a framework for a comprehensive and global effort to reduce the ecological, human health, and economic impacts of marine debris globally. The Honolulu Strategy is intended for use as a:
- Planning tool for developing or refining spatially or sector-specific marine debris programs and projects
- Common frame of reference for collaboration and sharing of best practices and lessons learned
- Monitoring tool to measure progress across multiple programs and projects
The Fifth International Marine Debris Conference, in March 2011, catalyzed development of the Honolulu Strategy.
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Question 18 of 30
18. Question
Which of the following releases the Composite Water Management Index (CWMI)?
Correct
Composite Water Management Index (CWMI) has been developed by NITI Aayog comprising 9 broad sectors with 28 different indicators covering various aspects of ground water, restoration of water bodies, irrigation, farm practices, drinking water, policy and governance.
The CWMI is an important tool to assess and improve the performance of States/ Union Territories in efficient management of water resources. This has been done through a first of its kind water data collection exercise in partnership with Ministry of Water Resources, Ministry of Drinking Water & Sanitation and all the States/ Union Territories.
Incorrect
Composite Water Management Index (CWMI) has been developed by NITI Aayog comprising 9 broad sectors with 28 different indicators covering various aspects of ground water, restoration of water bodies, irrigation, farm practices, drinking water, policy and governance.
The CWMI is an important tool to assess and improve the performance of States/ Union Territories in efficient management of water resources. This has been done through a first of its kind water data collection exercise in partnership with Ministry of Water Resources, Ministry of Drinking Water & Sanitation and all the States/ Union Territories.
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Question 19 of 30
19. Question
Consider the following statements
- According to the Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016, the minimum thickness of plastic carry bags is stipulated at 40 micron.
- The Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016 are also applicable to rural areas apart from the municipal areas.
Which of the above statements is/are correct?
Correct
The Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016 aim to:
- Increase minimum thickness of plastic carry bags from 40 to 50 microns and stipulate minimum thickness of 50 micron for plastic sheets also to facilitate collection and recycle of plastic waste,
- Expand the jurisdiction of applicability from the municipal area to rural areas, because plastic has reached rural areas also;
Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct.
- To bring in the responsibilities of producers and generators, both in plastic waste management system and to introduce collect back system of plastic waste by the producers/brand owners, as per extended producers responsibility;
- To introduce collection of plastic waste management fee through pre-registration of the producers, importers of plastic carry bags/multilayered packaging and vendors selling the same for establishing the waste management system;
- To promote use of plastic waste for road construction as per Indian Road Congress guidelines or energy recovery, or waste to oil etc. for gainful utilization of waste and also address the waste disposal issue; to entrust more responsibility on waste generators, namely payment of user charge as prescribed by local authority, collection and handing over of waste by the institutional generator, event organizers.
Note: It is not about the number (40 micron or 50 micron), but it’s about the key changes in a policy that one must focus upon.
Incorrect
The Plastic Waste Management Rules, 2016 aim to:
- Increase minimum thickness of plastic carry bags from 40 to 50 microns and stipulate minimum thickness of 50 micron for plastic sheets also to facilitate collection and recycle of plastic waste,
- Expand the jurisdiction of applicability from the municipal area to rural areas, because plastic has reached rural areas also;
Hence statement 1 and 2 are correct.
- To bring in the responsibilities of producers and generators, both in plastic waste management system and to introduce collect back system of plastic waste by the producers/brand owners, as per extended producers responsibility;
- To introduce collection of plastic waste management fee through pre-registration of the producers, importers of plastic carry bags/multilayered packaging and vendors selling the same for establishing the waste management system;
- To promote use of plastic waste for road construction as per Indian Road Congress guidelines or energy recovery, or waste to oil etc. for gainful utilization of waste and also address the waste disposal issue; to entrust more responsibility on waste generators, namely payment of user charge as prescribed by local authority, collection and handing over of waste by the institutional generator, event organizers.
Note: It is not about the number (40 micron or 50 micron), but it’s about the key changes in a policy that one must focus upon.
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Question 20 of 30
20. Question
Consider the following statements
- Pradhan Mantri Jl-VAN yojana is under the Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
- National Environmental Engineering Research Institute (NEERI) is the implementing agency for this scheme.
Which of the above statements is/are incorrect?
Correct
“Pradhan Mantri Jl-VAN (Jaiv Indhan- Vatavaran Anukool fasal awashesh Nivaran) Yojana” is a scheme under the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Centre for High Technology (CHT), a technical body under the aegis of MoP&NG, will be the implementation Agency for the scheme.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Additional Information:
Pradhan Mantri JI-VAN (Jaiv Indhan- Vatavaran Anukool fasal awashesh Nivaran) Yojana” provides for financial support to Integrated Bioethanol Projects using lignocellulosic biomass and other renewable feedstock.
The ethanol produced by the scheme beneficiaries will be mandatorily supplied to Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) to further enhance the blending percentage under Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme.
Incorrect
“Pradhan Mantri Jl-VAN (Jaiv Indhan- Vatavaran Anukool fasal awashesh Nivaran) Yojana” is a scheme under the Ministry of Petroleum & Natural Gas.
Hence statement 1 is incorrect.
Centre for High Technology (CHT), a technical body under the aegis of MoP&NG, will be the implementation Agency for the scheme.
Hence statement 2 is incorrect.
Additional Information:
Pradhan Mantri JI-VAN (Jaiv Indhan- Vatavaran Anukool fasal awashesh Nivaran) Yojana” provides for financial support to Integrated Bioethanol Projects using lignocellulosic biomass and other renewable feedstock.
The ethanol produced by the scheme beneficiaries will be mandatorily supplied to Oil Marketing Companies (OMCs) to further enhance the blending percentage under Ethanol Blended Petrol (EBP) Programme.
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Question 21 of 30
21. Question
‘Pine Island Glacier’ is located in
Correct
Pine Island Glacier and Thwaites Glacier have been described as part of the “weak underbelly” of the West Antarctic Ice Sheet, due to its apparent vulnerability to significant retreat.
Incorrect
Pine Island Glacier and Thwaites Glacier have been described as part of the “weak underbelly” of the West Antarctic Ice Sheet, due to its apparent vulnerability to significant retreat.
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Question 22 of 30
22. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘India’s drone policy’
- The drone will need a Unique Identification Number (UIN) and Unmanned Aircraft Operator Permit (UAOP) for its operation.
- Drones weighing below 10 kilograms operating below 50 feet (15 m) in uncontrolled airspace / enclosed premises are exempted from bating a UAOP
Select the correct statements
Correct
Director General of Civil Aviation has announced its policy for remotely piloted aircraft or drones.
DGCA has defined remotely piloted aircraft (RPA) as an unmanned aircraft piloted from a remote pilot station.
“The remotely piloted aircraft, its associated remote pilot station(s), command and control links and any other components forms a Remotely Piloted Aircraft System (RPAS),” the policy states.
Also, as per the civil aviation requirements – issued under the provisions of Rule 15A and Rule 133A of the Aircraft Rules, 1937 – these RPAs will need a Unique Identification Number (UIN), Unmanned Aircraft Operator Permit (UAOP) and need to adhere to other operational requirements.
The DGCA has segregated drones into five different categories
- Nano : Less than or equal to 250 grams.
- Micro : From 250 grams to 2kg.
- Small : From 2kg to 25kg.
- Medium : From 25kg to 150kg.
- Large : Greater than 150kg.
Operators of civil drones will need to get a permit from the DGCA. There are exceptions for:
- Nano RPA operating below 50 feet (15 m) in uncontrolled airspace / enclosed premises.
- Micro RPA operating below 200 feet (60 m) in uncontrolled airspace / enclosed premises – but will need to inform local police 24 hours prior.
- RPA owned and operated by NTRO, ARC and Central Intelligence Agencies but after intimating local police.
This UAOP shall be valid for five years and not transferrable. The policy also stipulates that RPAs shall be flown only by someone over 18 years of age, having passed 10th exam in English, and undergone ground/ practical training as approved by DGCA.
RPAs cannot be flown within 5km of the perimeters of the airports in Mumbai, Delhi, Chennai, Kolkata, Bengaluru and Hyderabad and within 3km from the perimeter of any other airport.
It cannot fly within “permanent or temporary Prohibited, Restricted and Danger Areas” and within 25km from international border which includes the Line of Control (LoC), Line of Actual Control (LAC) and Actual Ground Position Line (AGPL).
It cannot fly beyond 500 m into sea from the coast line and within 3 km from perimeter of military installations.
It also cannot be operated from a mobile platform such as a moving vehicle, ship or aircraft.
Eco-sensitive zones around National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries are off-limits without prior permission.
Violations will be acted on under relevant sections of the IPC and the Aircraft Act 1934.
Incorrect
Director General of Civil Aviation has announced its policy for remotely piloted aircraft or drones.
DGCA has defined remotely piloted aircraft (RPA) as an unmanned aircraft piloted from a remote pilot station.
“The remotely piloted aircraft, its associated remote pilot station(s), command and control links and any other components forms a Remotely Piloted Aircraft System (RPAS),” the policy states.
Also, as per the civil aviation requirements – issued under the provisions of Rule 15A and Rule 133A of the Aircraft Rules, 1937 – these RPAs will need a Unique Identification Number (UIN), Unmanned Aircraft Operator Permit (UAOP) and need to adhere to other operational requirements.
The DGCA has segregated drones into five different categories
- Nano : Less than or equal to 250 grams.
- Micro : From 250 grams to 2kg.
- Small : From 2kg to 25kg.
- Medium : From 25kg to 150kg.
- Large : Greater than 150kg.
Operators of civil drones will need to get a permit from the DGCA. There are exceptions for:
- Nano RPA operating below 50 feet (15 m) in uncontrolled airspace / enclosed premises.
- Micro RPA operating below 200 feet (60 m) in uncontrolled airspace / enclosed premises – but will need to inform local police 24 hours prior.
- RPA owned and operated by NTRO, ARC and Central Intelligence Agencies but after intimating local police.
This UAOP shall be valid for five years and not transferrable. The policy also stipulates that RPAs shall be flown only by someone over 18 years of age, having passed 10th exam in English, and undergone ground/ practical training as approved by DGCA.
RPAs cannot be flown within 5km of the perimeters of the airports in Mumbai, Delhi, Chennai, Kolkata, Bengaluru and Hyderabad and within 3km from the perimeter of any other airport.
It cannot fly within “permanent or temporary Prohibited, Restricted and Danger Areas” and within 25km from international border which includes the Line of Control (LoC), Line of Actual Control (LAC) and Actual Ground Position Line (AGPL).
It cannot fly beyond 500 m into sea from the coast line and within 3 km from perimeter of military installations.
It also cannot be operated from a mobile platform such as a moving vehicle, ship or aircraft.
Eco-sensitive zones around National Parks and Wildlife Sanctuaries are off-limits without prior permission.
Violations will be acted on under relevant sections of the IPC and the Aircraft Act 1934.
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Question 23 of 30
23. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘HeliNa Missile’
- It is a surface to air missile
- It has a maximum range of 2000 kilometres
Select the correct statements
Correct
HeliNa is an air-to-land version of Nag missile, which is one of the five missile systems developed by DRDO under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP).
Helina is the helicopter-launched version of the Nag anti-tank guided missile with a hit range of 7-8 km.
Incorrect
HeliNa is an air-to-land version of Nag missile, which is one of the five missile systems developed by DRDO under the Integrated Guided Missile Development Programme (IGMDP).
Helina is the helicopter-launched version of the Nag anti-tank guided missile with a hit range of 7-8 km.
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Question 24 of 30
24. Question
Which of the following statements is/are correct with respect to ‘Padmasambhava’
- He introduced the people of Tibet to the practice of Tantric Buddhism
- He is widely venerated as a “second Buddha” by adherents of Tibetan Buddhism
Select the correct statements
Correct
Guru Padmasambhava was also known as Guru Rinpoche is widely venerated as a “second Buddha” by adherents of Tibetan Buddhism in Tibet, Nepal, Bhutan, the Himalayan states of India, and elsewhere.
Padmasambhava introduced the people of Tibet to the practice of Tantric Buddhism.
He is regarded as the founder of the Nyingma tradition. The Nyingma tradition is the oldest of the four major schools of Tibetan Buddhism.
Incorrect
Guru Padmasambhava was also known as Guru Rinpoche is widely venerated as a “second Buddha” by adherents of Tibetan Buddhism in Tibet, Nepal, Bhutan, the Himalayan states of India, and elsewhere.
Padmasambhava introduced the people of Tibet to the practice of Tantric Buddhism.
He is regarded as the founder of the Nyingma tradition. The Nyingma tradition is the oldest of the four major schools of Tibetan Buddhism.
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Question 25 of 30
25. Question
Consider the following statements with respect to ‘Essential Services Maintenance Act’
- It is an act of Parliament of India which was established to ensure the delivery of certain services, which if obstructed would affect the normal life of the people
- The discretion on the execution of the Act mostly lies with the State governments.
Select the correct statements
Correct
Essential Services Maintenance Act
- It is an act of Parliament of India which was established to ensure the delivery of certain services, which if obstructed would affect the normal life of the people.
- This include services like public transport (bus services), health services (doctors and hospitals).
- The ESMA is a central law, that is, a law made by the Parliament of India; but the discretion on the execution of it mostly lies with the State governments.
- Each state in the union of India, hence has a separate state Essential Services Maintenance Act with slight variations from the central law in its provisions.
- This freedom is accorded by the central law itself. Its execution rests entirely on the discretion of the State government.
Incorrect
Essential Services Maintenance Act
- It is an act of Parliament of India which was established to ensure the delivery of certain services, which if obstructed would affect the normal life of the people.
- This include services like public transport (bus services), health services (doctors and hospitals).
- The ESMA is a central law, that is, a law made by the Parliament of India; but the discretion on the execution of it mostly lies with the State governments.
- Each state in the union of India, hence has a separate state Essential Services Maintenance Act with slight variations from the central law in its provisions.
- This freedom is accorded by the central law itself. Its execution rests entirely on the discretion of the State government.
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Question 26 of 30
26. Question
The Report titled ‘Strengthening Legal Frameworks for Licit and Illicit Trade in Wildlife and Forest Products’ has been published by:
Correct
The UN Environment Programme (UNEP) has released a report that identifies and analyzes global, regional and national institutions and legal frameworks on legal and illegal trade in wildlife and forest products.
The publication titled, ‘Strengthening Legal Frameworks for Licit and Illicit Trade in Wildlife and Forest Products,’ focuses on addressing illegal trade in wildlife and forest products across the three sectors of crime prevention and criminal justice, trade regulation and natural resource management.
Source:
https://sdg.iisd.org/news/unep-report-analyzes-frameworks-legislation-on-legal-and-illegal-trade-in-wildlife-forest-products/
Incorrect
The UN Environment Programme (UNEP) has released a report that identifies and analyzes global, regional and national institutions and legal frameworks on legal and illegal trade in wildlife and forest products.
The publication titled, ‘Strengthening Legal Frameworks for Licit and Illicit Trade in Wildlife and Forest Products,’ focuses on addressing illegal trade in wildlife and forest products across the three sectors of crime prevention and criminal justice, trade regulation and natural resource management.
Source:
https://sdg.iisd.org/news/unep-report-analyzes-frameworks-legislation-on-legal-and-illegal-trade-in-wildlife-forest-products/
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Question 27 of 30
27. Question
Which of the following is correct regarding Vienna Programme of Action (VPoA):
Correct
Thirty-two of the world’s landlocked countries with a population of about 440 million, face an array of challenges mainly associated with their lack of direct territorial access to the sea and remoteness from world markets. Their dependence on other countries for international trade via transit is an element that adds on to these various challenges.
To address these particular constraints, there has been an increase in recognition of landlocked developing countries and their specific needs at the United Nations.
The Almaty Programme of Action: Addressing the Special Needs of Landlocked Developing Countries within a New Global Framework For Transit Transport Cooperation for Landlocked and Transit Developing Countries and the Almaty Ministerial Declaration, is amongst the first steps adopted in addressing the needs of landlocked developing countries.
The Vienna Programme of Action, the new holistic document centered upon addressing the challenges faced by landlocked countries, aims to contribute to the eradication of poverty stemming from their landlockedness, through the implementation of specific actions in the priority areas of the renowned document.
The VPoA was adopted in November 2014 during the Second UN Conference on LLDCs, and covers the decade 2014-2024. The programme of action addresses the challenges faced by LLDCs by focusing on six priority areas: fundamental transit policy issues; infrastructure development and maintenance; international trade and trade facilitation; regional integration and cooperation; structural economic transformation; and means of implementation.
Source:
https://sdg.iisd.org/news/governments-regions-un-agencies-preparing-to-review-action-for-lldcs/
Incorrect
Thirty-two of the world’s landlocked countries with a population of about 440 million, face an array of challenges mainly associated with their lack of direct territorial access to the sea and remoteness from world markets. Their dependence on other countries for international trade via transit is an element that adds on to these various challenges.
To address these particular constraints, there has been an increase in recognition of landlocked developing countries and their specific needs at the United Nations.
The Almaty Programme of Action: Addressing the Special Needs of Landlocked Developing Countries within a New Global Framework For Transit Transport Cooperation for Landlocked and Transit Developing Countries and the Almaty Ministerial Declaration, is amongst the first steps adopted in addressing the needs of landlocked developing countries.
The Vienna Programme of Action, the new holistic document centered upon addressing the challenges faced by landlocked countries, aims to contribute to the eradication of poverty stemming from their landlockedness, through the implementation of specific actions in the priority areas of the renowned document.
The VPoA was adopted in November 2014 during the Second UN Conference on LLDCs, and covers the decade 2014-2024. The programme of action addresses the challenges faced by LLDCs by focusing on six priority areas: fundamental transit policy issues; infrastructure development and maintenance; international trade and trade facilitation; regional integration and cooperation; structural economic transformation; and means of implementation.
Source:
https://sdg.iisd.org/news/governments-regions-un-agencies-preparing-to-review-action-for-lldcs/
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Question 28 of 30
28. Question
Which of the following organizations has recently issued guidelines on ‘Environmental flows to assist countries in managing levels of Water Stress?
Correct
The Food and Agriculture Organization of the UN (FAO) has issued guidelines on environmental flows to assist countries in managing levels of water stress. SDG target 6.4 sets out the aim of ensuring sustainable withdrawals and supply of freshwater to address water scarcity, and SDG indicator 6.4.2 measures water stress in terms of freshwater withdrawal as a proportion of available freshwater resources.
Source:
https://sdg.iisd.org/news/fao-provides-guidance-on-environmental-flows-as-a-measure-of-water-stress/
Incorrect
The Food and Agriculture Organization of the UN (FAO) has issued guidelines on environmental flows to assist countries in managing levels of water stress. SDG target 6.4 sets out the aim of ensuring sustainable withdrawals and supply of freshwater to address water scarcity, and SDG indicator 6.4.2 measures water stress in terms of freshwater withdrawal as a proportion of available freshwater resources.
Source:
https://sdg.iisd.org/news/fao-provides-guidance-on-environmental-flows-as-a-measure-of-water-stress/
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Question 29 of 30
29. Question
Consider the following statements regarding Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES):
- It is an independent intergovernmental body administered by United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP)
- Global Assessment Report on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services -2019 will be launched by IPBES.
Which of the given statements is/are correct?
Correct
The Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) is an independent intergovernmental body, established by member States in 2012. The objective of IPBES is to strengthen the science-policy interface for biodiversity and ecosystem services for the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity, long-term human well-being and sustainable development.
It was established in Panama City, on 21 April 2012 by 94 governments. IPBES is placed under the auspices of four United Nations entities: UNEP, UNESCO, FAO and UNDP and administered by UNEP
IPBES is set to launch 1st global assessment report on biodiversity and ecosystem services since 2005.
Source:
https://sdg.iisd.org/news/ipbes-previews-2019-global-assessment-report-on-biodiversity/
Incorrect
The Intergovernmental Science-Policy Platform on Biodiversity and Ecosystem Services (IPBES) is an independent intergovernmental body, established by member States in 2012. The objective of IPBES is to strengthen the science-policy interface for biodiversity and ecosystem services for the conservation and sustainable use of biodiversity, long-term human well-being and sustainable development.
It was established in Panama City, on 21 April 2012 by 94 governments. IPBES is placed under the auspices of four United Nations entities: UNEP, UNESCO, FAO and UNDP and administered by UNEP
IPBES is set to launch 1st global assessment report on biodiversity and ecosystem services since 2005.
Source:
https://sdg.iisd.org/news/ipbes-previews-2019-global-assessment-report-on-biodiversity/
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Question 30 of 30
30. Question
The report “The Economic Outlook” is related to:
Correct
Don’t confuse it with World Economic Outlook of IMF.
The Economic Outlook by the OECD, published at the end of November 2018, adds to the global picture by showing how, as digitalization spreads, the divide between high-skill, low-routine jobs and low-skill, high-routine work continues to grow, posing the risk of further widening inequalities. The Outlook says strengthening product market competition would not only prompt wider diffusion of new technologies, thereby raising productivity growth, but also help transfer output and efficiency gains to wages.
Source:
https://sdg.iisd.org/news/imf-world-bank-and-oecd-update-global-economic-forecasts/
Incorrect
Don’t confuse it with World Economic Outlook of IMF.
The Economic Outlook by the OECD, published at the end of November 2018, adds to the global picture by showing how, as digitalization spreads, the divide between high-skill, low-routine jobs and low-skill, high-routine work continues to grow, posing the risk of further widening inequalities. The Outlook says strengthening product market competition would not only prompt wider diffusion of new technologies, thereby raising productivity growth, but also help transfer output and efficiency gains to wages.
Source:
https://sdg.iisd.org/news/imf-world-bank-and-oecd-update-global-economic-forecasts/