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70+Hits from IASbaba in UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Exam 2019- Hatrick from IASbaba!!!

  • IASbaba
  • June 5, 2019
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70+Hits from IASbaba in UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Exam 2019- Hatrick from IASbaba!!!
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70+Hits from IASbaba in UPSC Civil Services (Preliminary) Exam 2019- Hatrick from IASbaba!!!

Dear Friends,
For the first time (this year), we launched Integrated Learning Programme (ILP) 2020 before Prelims and we thank you for the overwhelming response!

And since yesterday we have received  many mails on our ILP email id (ilp@iasbaba.com) thanking and giving feedback and comments on the website, thanking us for the good performance you guys gave in this prelims. This really means a lot 🙂

Last 2 years have seen the who and who’s of UPSC being put on turmoil by UPSC . If there is one baston which is standing and burning bright, it has been IASbaba.

You would have realised the importance of IASbaba last year and deja vu the same this year! And probably much more this year!!

We humbly submit we have a hit ratio 70+ this year (Prelims 2019).

(While most of them are direct, we also have included wherever we have induced the thought process leading to the answer. We have not included mere keywords. That would have taken the tally much higher ).

 
Why and how did this Happen?
Let us tell you why/how it is possible to hit 70 questions straight.

One, UPSC takes the test series in market and makes sure it does not ask questions from them and the other in general, they target the Institutes who “try to claim”  merely based on a test series.

This is where IASbaba and its methods are different.

  • ILP is not merely a test series
  • ILP is a complete package, which in all probability commissions cannot track!

IASbaba has been recognised as a Product Innovator who came to the market with ILP, and provided a person sitting anywhere in India, a chance at top ranks in UPSC.

It is a combination of micromanaged timetable (micro plan) with regular tests for Prelims , coupled with highly effective Prelims capsule (Babapedia), Mains Test and Synopsis, Strategy articles, the 60 day plan and TLP for mains.

We built a new platform for ILP, it had forum in its own. That’s why there was never a discussion of our ILP in any forums.

This time we have launched 2 ILP programmes – ILP Veterans and ILP Freshers/Working Professionals based on the demand and needs of the aspirants.

For More info about our flagship Programme ILP -> CLICK HERE

 

This year paper was a beauty, where in even though most questions looked factual , they were actually analytical.

Most of you who had depended on one test series, last minute compilations have drawn a sorry figure!

While those who strongly built basics and scaled it up to the level of integrating Current Affairs have done well.

 

This is what ILP has done- 

  • Inculcate basics through VAN.
  • Be ever current ready with BABAPEDIA.
  • Test periodically with the Test Series.
  • Backed by Analytical classes. All of our faculty are drawn from IAS/IPS/IRS ranks, IIM , IIT, NIT, RV College, Bangalore.

We have rocked prelims! Its time to rock Mains now !!

 

In a mere 3 years, IASbaba has scaled unreached heights. And a new addition to that is we are opening in Delhi in Big way…!!

We will redefine Delhi Dynamics just as we have redefined online to make it most inclusive and qualitative! And we seek all of your active and humble support in the same!

Finally at this moment of happiness we would like to thank all our followers. In fact we are thankful to them that they made us famous after which our ILP soared by word of mouth to become India’s largest online learning UPSC experience.

 

To those who will not be able to make it this year

We advice what our teachers advised  ‘Do not take shortcuts, for they cut you short’

And we wish all the best to all of you!!

 


UPSC has its own way of asking questions. A sincere aspirant consistent with all the initiative must have got through many of the questions with ease. Many direct references are there and our followers will easily relate with them.


 

DETAILED EXPLANATION :

Please Note that we have not put the Question Number, so that a student with any Series (A, B, C,D) can Refer to the Solution and Detailed Explanation!

 

Q.) Consider the following statements:

  1.     Agricultural soils release nitrogen oxides into environment.
  2.     Cattle release ammonia into environment.
  3.     Poultry industry releases reactive nitrogen compounds into environment.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)   1 and 3 only

(b)   2 and 3 only

(c)    2 only

(d)   1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Statement (1) is correct as nitrogen oxides are released into the environment due to biological processes in soils and biomass burning.

Agriculture remains the largest contributor to nitrogen emissions followed by sewage and organic solid wastes. (Approx. 90% of the emissions come from soils.)

Pic: https://www.thehindu.com/news/xobe9j/article24091247.ece/alternates/FREE_320/vbk-nitrogen%20graphic

 

Nitrous oxide is formed in soils during the microbiological processes nitrification and denitrification. Because nitrous oxide is a gas it can escape from soil during these transformations.

Statement (2) is also correct as cattle release both ammonia and methane into the atmosphere. Cattle account for 80% of the ammonia production, though their annual growth rate is 1%, due to a stable population.

The poultry industry, on the other hand, with an annual growth rate of 6%, recorded an excretion of reactive nitrogen compounds of 0.415 tonnes in 2016. Hence, statement (3) is also correct.

Source: https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/nitrogen-emissions-going-up-study/article24090131.ece

 

IASbaba Reference: DNA (South Asian Nitrogen Hub)

Link: https://iasbaba.com/2018/06/iasbabas-daily-current-affairs-prelims-mains-focus-6th-june-2018/

Link: https://iasbaba.com/2019/01/daily-current-affairs-ias-upsc-prelims-and-mains-exam-25th-january-2019/


 

Q.) Consider the following statements:

  1. The 44th Amendment to the Constitution of India introduced an Article placing the election of the Prime Minister beyond judicial review.
  2.  The Supreme Court of India struck down the 99th Amendment to the Constitution of India as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)   1 only

(b)   2 only                             

(c)    Both 1 and 2

(d)   Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (b)

Explanation:

38th amendment to the constitution put the election of the PM beyond the purview of the courts.  Hence, statement (1) is wrong.

99th Constitutional Amendment Act, 2014 which provides for composition of the NJAC was struck down by the Supreme Court as being violative of the independence of judiciary.

IASbaba Reference: ILP VAN Significant Amendments (under ILP MOUDLE 1 STAGE 1 MAINS 2019) & 60 Day Plan

 


 

Q.) Consider the following statements:

  1.     The motion to impeach a Judge of the Supreme Court of India cannot be rejected by the Speaker of the Lok  Sabha as per the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
  2.     The Constitution of India defines and gives details of what Constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India.
  3.     The details of the process of impeachment of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India are given in the Judges (Inquiry) Act, 1968.
  4.     If the motion for the impeachment of a Judge is taken up for voting, the law requires the motion to be backed by each House of the Parliament and supported by a majority of total membership of that House and by not less than two-thirds of total members of that House present and voting.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)   1 and 2

(b)   3 only

(c)    3 and 4 only

(d)   1, 3 and 4

Solution (c)

Explanation:

The Judges Enquiry Act (1968) regulates the procedure relating to the removal of a judge of the Supreme Court by the process of impeachment.

A removal motion signed by 100 members (in the case of Lok Sabha) or 50 members (in the case of Rajya Sabha) is to be given to the Speaker/Chairman. The Speaker/Chairman may admit the motion or refuse to admit it. Hence, statement (1) is wrong.

A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from his Office by an order of the president.  The grounds of removal are two—proved misbehaviour or incapacity. However, the Constitution of India does not define nor gives details of what Constitutes ‘incapacity and proved misbehaviour’ of the Judges of the Supreme Court of India. Hence, statement (2) is also wrong.

IASbaba Reference: ILP VAN POLITY


 

Q.) Consider the following statements:

  1.     The Parliament (Prevention of Disqualification) Act, 1959 exempts several posts from disqualification on the grounds of ‘Office of Profit’.
  2.     The above-mentioned Act was amended five times.
  3.     The term ‘Office of Profit’ is well-defined in the Constitution of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)   1 and 2 only

(b)   3 only

(c)    2 and 3 only

(d)   1, 2 and 3

Solution (a)

IASbaba Reference: DNA & 60 Day plan

https://iasbaba.com/2018/01/iasbabas-daily-current-affairs-prelims-mains-focus-20th-january-2018/

60 Day Plan-

https://iasbaba.com/2018/04/iasbabas-60-day-plan-prelims-test-2018-economics-current-affairs-day-40/


 

Q.) Under which Schedule of the Constitution of India can the transfer of tribal land to private parties for mining be declared null and void?

(a)   Third Schedule

(b)   Fifth Schedule

(c)    Ninth Schedule

(d)   Twelfth Schedule

Q.) Solution (b)

IASbaba Reference:


 

Q.) Consider the following:

  1.     Carbon monoxide
  2.     Methane
  3.     Ozone
  4.     Sulphur dioxide

Which of the above are released into atmosphere due to the burning of crop/biomass residue?

(a)   1 and 2 only

(b)   2, 3 and 4 only

(c)    1 and 4 only

(d)   1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution (d)

Reference:

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/coverage/agriculture/river-of-fire-57924

https://www.downtoearth.org.in/news/air/burning-paddy-fields-deteriorate-air-quality-in-delhi-51687

IASbaba Reference : ILP – Babapedia


 

Q.) Consider the following pairs:

Sea : : Bordering country

  1. Adriatic Sea : : Albania
  2. Black Sea : : Croatia
  3. Caspian Sea : : Kazakhstan
  4. Mediterranean Sea : : Morocco
  5. Red Sea : : Syria

Which of the pair given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1, 2 and 4 only

(b) 1, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 5 only

(d) 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Solution (b)

IASbaba Reference: Daily Quiz & 60 Day Plan


 

Q.) Building ‘Kalyaana Mandapas’ was a notable feature in the temple construction in the kingdom of

(a) Chalukya

(b) Chandela

(c) Rashtrakuta

(d) Vijayanagara

Solution (d)

IASbaba Reference: ILP VAN


 

Q.) With reference to Mian Tansen, which one of the following statements is not correct?

(a) Tansen was the title given to him by Emperor Akbar.

(b) Tansen composed Dhrupads on Hindu gods and goddesses.

(c) Tansen composed songs on his patrons.

(d) Tansen invented many Ragas.

Solution (a)

Explaination:

Akbar conferred the title Mian (meaning a learned man) upon Tansen. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Other statements are correct.

IASbaba Reference: ILP VAN


 

Q.) Who among the following Mughal Emperors shifted emphasis from illustrated manuscripts to album and individual portrait?

(a) Humayun

(b) Akbar

(c) Jahangir

(d) Shah Jahan

Solution (c)

IASbaba Reference: ILP Revision test 30 & VAN

ILP VAN Medieval History


 

Q.) Atal Innovation Mission is set up under the

(a) Department of Science and Technology

(b) Ministry of Employment

(c) NITI Aayog

(d) Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship

Solution (c)

IASbaba Reference: Test 32 – Government Schemes & Current Affairs (Revision Test-2)

PIB Compilation 24th February to 2nd March


 

Q.) On 21st June, the Sun

(a) does not set below the horizon at the Arctic Circle

(b) does not set below the horizon at Antarctic Circle

(c) shines vertically overhead at noon on the Equator

(d) shines vertically overhead at the Tropic of Capricorn

Solution(a)

Explanation:

On June 21st, the sun lies vertically overhead the Tropic of Cancer. This is called summer solstice in northern hemisphere. This is the longest day in northern hemisphere. On this day, the sun does not set below the horizon at Arctic Circle, while the sun does not rise below the Antarctic circle.

IASbaba Reference: ILP VAN (Geography) & 60 day 2018


 

Q.) The Global Competitiveness Report is published by the

(a) International Monetary Fund

(b) United Nations Conference on Trade and Development

(c) World Economic Forum

(d) World Bank

Solution (c)

IASbaba Reference: Babapedia (ILP)


Q.) Consider the following statements about ‘the Charter Act of 1813’:

  1. It ended the trade monopoly of the East India Company in India except for trade in tea and trade with China.
  2. It asserted the sovereignty of the British Crown over the Indian territories held by the Company.
  3. The revenues of India were now controlled by the British Parliament.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (a)

IASbaba Reference:60 Day Full Mock


 

Q.) With reference to Swadeshi Movement, consider the following statements:

  1. It contributed to the revival of the indigenous artisan crafts and industries.
  2. The National Council of Education was established as a part of Swadeshi Movement.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 and 2

Solution (c)

IASbaba Reference : ILP Test 30

 

Q.) Consider the following pairs:

Movement/Organization Leader

  1. All India Anti-Untouchability League: Mahatma Gandhi
  2. All India Kisan Sabha: Swami Sahajanand Saraswati
  3. Self – Respect: E. V. Ramaswami

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

IASbaba Reference : 60 day Plan & ILP Test 35

ILP Test 35


 

Q.) Which one of the following is not a Harappan site?

(a) Chanhudaro

(b) Kot diji

(c) Sohgaura

(d) Desalpur

Solution (c)

IASbaba Reference : History VAN


 

Q.) Consider the following statements:

  1.  Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
  2.  Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
  3.  One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)   1 only

b)  2 only

c)   1 and 3 only

d)  1, 2 and 3

Solution (a)

Explanation

  •         One Horned Rhinos – India Subcontinent
  •         Double humped Camel – Central Asia

IASbaba Reference – Babapedia


 

Q.) In the context of which of the following do some scientists the use of cirrus cloud thinning technique and the injection of sulphate aerosol into stratosphere?

a)  Creating the artificial rains in some regions

b)  Reducing the frequency and intensity of tropical cyclones

c)   Reducing the adverse effects of solar wind on the Earth

d)  Reducing the global warming

Solution (d)

Explanation:

The ability of stratospheric sulfate aerosols to create a global dimming effect has made them a possible candidate for use in solar radiation management climate engineering projects to limit the effect and impact of climate change due to rising levels of greenhouse gases.

Read More – https://www.thehindu.com/sci-tech/energy-and-environment/scientists-mull-stratospheric-barrier-to-curb-warming/article25587354.ece

IASbaba Reference – Babapedia


 

Q.) In the context of which one of the following are the terms ‘pyrolysis and plasma gasification’ mentioned?

a)   Extraction of rare earth elements

b)   Natural gas extraction technologies

c)   Hydrogen fuel-based automobiles

d)   Waste-to-energy technologies

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Pyrolysis is the thermochemical decomposition of organic material at elevated temperatures in the absence of oxygen or any halogen. A Fast Pyrolysis Reactor (FPR) that will thermo chemically decompose any organic or carbon material into energy rich oil and gas.

IASbaba Reference – ILP Test 15


Q.) Which of the following are in Agasthyamala Biosphere Reserve?

a)   Neyyar, Peppara and Shendurney Wildlife Sancturies; and Kalakad Mundanthurai Tiger Reserve

b)   Mudumalai, Sathyamagalam and Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Silent Valley National Park

c)   Kaundinya, Gundla Brahme-swaram and papikonda Wildlife Sancturies; and Mukurthi National park

d)   Kawal and Sri Venkateswara Wildlife Sanctuaries; and Nagarjunasagar- Srisailam Tiger Reserve

Solution (a)

Explanation:

IASbaba Reference – Babapedia


 

Q.) Why is there a great concern about the ‘micro beads’ that are released into environment?

a)   They are considered harmful to marine ecosystems.

b)   They are considered to cause skin cancer in children

c)   They are small enough to be absorbed by crop plants in irrigated fields.

d)   They are often found to be used as food adulterants

Solution (a)

Explanation:

Microbeads are not captured by most wastewater treatment systems. If they are washed down drains after use, they can end up in rivers, lakes and oceans.

Once in the water, microbeads can have a damaging effect on marine life, the environment and human health. This is due to their composition, ability to adsorb toxins and potential to transfer up the marine food chain. These tiny plastics persist in the environment as they are almost impossible to remove. The best way to reduce their impact is to prevent them from entering the environment.

IASbaba Reference – ILP Test 39


 

Q.) The word ‘Denisovan’ is sometimes mentioned in media in reference to

a)   fossils of a kind of dinosaurs

b)   an early human species

c)   a cave system found in North-East India

d)   a geological period in the history of Indian subcontinent

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Denisovans or Denisova hominins are an extinct species or subspecies of archaic humans in the genus Homo.

IASbaba Reference –  Babapedia


 

Q.) Which one of the following statements is not correct?

a)   Hepatitis B virus is transmitted much like HIV.

b)   Hepatitis B, unlike Hepatitis C, does not have a vaccine.

c)   Globally, the numbers of people infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses are several times more than those infected with HIV.

d)   Some of those infected with Hepatitis B and C viruses do not show the symptoms for many years.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

While vaccines exist for hepatitis A and B, there is currently no vaccine for hepatitis C.

IASbaba Reference – Babapedia


 

Q.) What is Cas9 protein that is often mentioned in news?

a)   A molecular scissors used in targeted gene editing

b)   A biosensor used in the accurate detection of pathogens in patients

c)   A gene that makes plants pest-resistant

d)   A herbicidal substance synthesized in genetically modified crops.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

Cas9 is a protein which plays a vital role in the immunological defense of certain bacteria against DNA viruses, and which is heavily utilized in genetic engineering applications. Its main function is to cut DNA and therefore it can alter a cell’s genome.

IASbaba Reference – Babapedia


 

Q.) What is common to the places known as Aliyar, Isapur and Kangsabati?

(a)   Recently discovered uranium deposits

(b)   Tropical rain forests

(c)    Underground cave systems

(d)   Water reservoirs

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Aliyar reservoir or Aliyar dam is located in the foothills of Valparai, in the Anaimalai Hills of the Western Ghats (Tamil Nadu)

Isapur Dam is an earthfill dam on Penganga river near Pusad (Maharashtra). It is one of the biggest dam in the state of Maharashtra. The motive behind the construction of the Dam was mainly irrigation.

The Kangsabati Project, also often referred to as the Kangsabati Irrigation Project and The Kangsabati Reservoir Project, is a project started in the Indian state of West Bengal in 1956 as part of the Indian Second Five-year Plan.


 

Q.) In the context of proposals to the use of hydrogen-enriched CNG (H-CNG) as fuel for buses in public transport, consider the following statements:

  1. The main advantage of the use of H-CNG is the elimination of carbon monoxide emissions.
  2. H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions.
  3. Hydrogen up to one-fifth by volume can be blended with CNG as fuel for buses.
  4. H-CNG makes the fuel less expensive than CNG.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)   1 only

(b)   2 and 3 only

(c)    4 only

(d)   1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution (b)

Explanation:

H-CNG is a blend of hydrogen and CNG, the ideal hydrogen concentration being 18%. Compared to conventional CNG, use of H-CNG can reduce emission of carbon monoxide up to 70%, besides enabling up to 5% savings in fuel. (It does not completely eliminate carbon monoxide; hence, statement (1) is incorrect.)

Statement (2) and (3) are correct as H-CNG as fuel reduces carbon dioxide and hydrocarbon emissions. Compared with natural gas, HCNG has many advantages when it comes to performance.

H-CNG is expensive than CNG. Current cost of H2 is more than the cost of Natural Gas. Hence, statement (4) is wrong.


 

Q.) Why are dewdrops not formed on a cloudy night?

(a)   Clouds absorb the radiation released from the Earth’s surface.

(b)   Clouds reflect back the Earth’s radiation.

(c)    The Earth’s surface would have low temperature on cloudy nights.

(d)   Clouds deflect the blowing wind to ground level.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

During night time, earth surface releases radiation (terrestrial radiation) and these radiation are reflected back due to clouds.

If clear sky, these terrestrial radiation would have escaped out and earth surface would have become cold. However, during cloudy night, terrestrial radiation can’t escape out and leads to the formation of greenhouse condition due to which temperature on earth’s surface is relatively higher. Hence, condition becomes unfavorable for the formation of dew.


 

Q.) The Ninth Schedule was introduced in the Constitution of India during the prime ministership of

(a)   Jawaharlal Nehru

(b)   Lal Bahadur Shastri

(c)    Indira Gandhi

(d)   Morarji Desai

Solution (a)

IASbaba Reference:  ILP Polity VAN; Test Series


 

Q.) Consider the following statements:

  1.     Coal sector was nationalized by the Government of India under Indira Gandhi.
  2.     Now, coal blocks are allocated on lottery basis.
  3.     Till recently, India imported coal to meet the shortages of domestic supply, but now India is self-sufficient in coal production.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a)   1 only

(b)   2 and 3 only

(c)    3 only

(d)   1, 2 and 3

Solution (a)

Explanation:

Despite having huge reserves of coal, India imports high quality coking coal which is necessary for steel production. Import of coal is projected to increase over five percent per year through 2022. Using this information, other options can be eliminated to arrive at correct answer.

IASbaba Reference: ILP -VAN Science & Technology

The single statement in VAN will help you in eliminating statement 3. Therefore the Answer is 1 only (a)


 

Q.) Recently, there was a growing awareness in our country about the importance of Himalayan nettle (Girardinia diversifolia) because it is found to be a sustainable source of

(a)   anti-malarial drug

(b)   blodiesel

(c)    pulp for paper industry

(d)   textile fibre

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Girardinia diversifolia, commonly known as the Himalayan nettle or Nilghiri nettle is  found abundantly in open forest land, river sides, and moist habitat in Nepal and in Himalayan parts of India such as Uttarakhand, Himachal Pradesh and J&K and in vast parts of China.

It is a fibre-yielding plant and has become an important livelihood option for people living in the remote mountainous villages of the Hindu Kush Himalaya.


 

Q.) For the measurement/estimation of which of the following are satellite images/remote sensing data used?

  1.     Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location
  2.     Greenhouse gas emissions from rice paddies of a specific location
  3.     Land surface temperatures of a specific location

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)   1 only

(b)   2 and 3 only

(c)    3 only

(d)   1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Remote Sensing (RS) refers to the branch of science which derives information about objects from measurements made from a distance i.e. without actually coming into contact with them.

Remote sensing deals with the use of light i.e. electromagnetic radiation as the medium of interaction. RS identifies the earth features by detecting the characteristics of electromagnetic radiation that is reflected by the earth surface.

Every object reflects a portion of electromagnetic radiation incident on it depending upon its physical properties. Therefore, data on rice paddies areas or land surface can be collected by remote sensing satellites.

Chlorophyll content in the vegetation of a specific location can be estimated using Multispectral Satellite Imagery.


 

Q.) Consider the following States:

  1.     Chhattisgarh
  2.     Madhya Pradesh
  3.     Maharashtra
  4.     Odisha

With reference to the States mentioned above, in terms of percentage of forest cover to the total area of State, which one of the following is the correct ascending order?

(a)   2-3-1-4

(b)   2-3-4-1

(c)    3-2-4-1

(d)   3-2-1-4

Solution (c)

Explanation:

As per India State of Forests Report 2017, percentage of forest cover to the total area of State is as follows

Maharashtra-16.47%

Madhya Pradesh – 25.11%

Odisha-32.98%

Chattisgarh- 41.09%. Hence correct option is (c)


 

Q.) Which of the following statements are correct about the deposits of methane hydrate?

  1.     Global warming might trigger the release of methane gas from these deposits.
  2.     Large deposits of ‘methane hydrate’ are found in Arctic Tundra and under the seafloor.
  3.     Methane in atmosphere oxidizes to carbon dioxide after a decade or two.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a)   1 and 2 only

(b)   2 and 3 only

(c)    1 and 3 only

(d)   1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

IASbaba Reference: 60 Day Plan – Day 28


 

Q.) Among the following, which one is the largest exporter of rice in the world in the last five years?

(a)   China

(b)   India

(c)    Myanmar

(d)   Vietnam

Solution (b)

Explanation:

India has been the world’s top rice exporter since the beginning of this decade.

India emerged the world’s largest rice exporter in 2011-12, displacing Thailand from its leadership position. Two factors played a role in this. The first was the government’s decision in February 2011 to lift a four-year ban on exports of non-basmati varieties of rice, paving the way for a rise in exports of those varieties.

The second was a decision of the then Thai government under Prime Minister Yingluck Shinawatra, taken in the same year, to favour farmers by strengthening a Rice Pledging Scheme under which it promised to procure unlimited stocks at an enhanced price that reflected a 50 per cent increase over 2010. The consequent increase in domestic prices obviously reduced the incentive to sell in export markets rather than to the government or in the local market. India was a major beneficiary, recording a sharp increase in exports of non-basmati varieties.

https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/opinion/columns/c-p-chandrasekhar/the-dynamics-of-indias-rice-export-boom/article25994349.ece

IASbaba Reference: DNA

https://iasbaba.com/2018/10/iasbabas-daily-current-affairs-prelims-mains-focus-16th-october-2018/

 

Q.) Consider the following pairs:

Glacier      : :      River

  1. Bandarpunch : : Yamuna
  2. Bara Shigri : : Chenab
  3. Milam : : Mandakini
  4. Siachen : : Nubra
  5. Zemu : : Manas

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

(a) 1, 2 and 4

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 2 and 5

(d) 3 and 5

Solution (a)

Explanation:

https://www.thehindu.com/society/history-and-culture/the-journey-of-the-himalayan-glaciers/article24339175.ece


 

Q.) In India, the use of carbofuran, methyl parathion, phorate and triazophos is viewed with apprehension. These chemicals are used as

(a)   pesticides in agriculture

(b)   preservatives in processed foods

(c)    fruit-ripening agents

(d)   moisturising agents in cosmetics

 Solution (a)

IASbaba Reference: 60 Day Plan – Day 56


 

Q.) Consider the following statements:

  1.     Under Ramsar Convention, it is mandatory on the part of the Government of India to protect and conserve all the wetlands in the territory of India.
  2.     The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 were framed by the Government of India based on the recommendations of Ramsar Convention.
  3.     The Wetlands (Conservation and Management) Rules, 2010 also encompass the drainage area or catchment regions of the wetlands as determined by the authority.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a)   1 and 2 only

(b)   2 and 3 only

(c)    3 only

(d)   1, 2 and 3

Solution (c)

IASbaba Reference: ILP VAN & Test Series

 


 

Q.) Consider the following statements:

  1. In the revenue administration of Delhi Sultanate, the in-charge of revenue collection was known as ‘Amil’.
  2. The Iqta system of Sultans of Delhi was an ancient indigenous institution.
  3. The office of ‘Mir Bakshi’ came into existence during the reign of Khalji Sultans of Delhi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (a)

Explanation:

Provincial administration under Delhi Sultans

Shiqdar, faujdar, Amil, Amin and qazi were important officers at provincial level.

Shiqdar & faujdar –  assisted the governor in the maintenance of law and order – particularly criminal justice, and provided military assistance The duties of the faujdar were much similar to that of the shiqdar, yet they seem to have existed simultaneously.

The shiqdar and faujdar were helped in carrying out their duties by a host of other local officials

Qazi – dealt mostly with civil cases and acted as a jurisconsult since he was educated in the Quran

Amil  – primarily responsible for the collection of revenue

Amin – carried out measurement of land in the reign of Sikandar Lodi

Kotwal – maintenance of law and order

Hence Statement 1 is correct.

Iqtadari system is a Persian system which was brought to India by Delhi sultans.

Hence Statement 2 is wrong.

Office of Mir Bakshi came into existence during the Mughal period.

Hence statement 3 is wrong.


 

Q.) Consider the following statements:

  1. Saint Nimbarka was a contemporary of Akbar.
  2. Saint Kabir was greatly influenced by Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Saint Nimbarka belongs to 13th or 14th century while Akbar reigned during 16th century. Hence Statement 1 is wrong.

Saint Kabir lived in 15th century while Shaikh Ahmad Sirhindi lived during 16th century. Hence Statement 2 is wrong.


 

Q.) With reference to the British colonial rule in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Mahatma Gandhi was instrumental in the abolition of the system of ‘indentured labour’.
  2. In Lord Chelmsford’s ‘War Conference’, Mahatma Gandhi did not support the resolution on recruiting Indians for World War.
  3. Consequent upon the breaking of Salt Law by Indian people, the Indian National Congress was declared illegal by the colonial rulers.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Lord Chelmsford, the then Viceroy of India, invited Gandhi to Delhi at a War Conference. In order to gain the trust of the empire, Gandhi agreed to move people to enlist in the army for World War I.

Hence Statement 2 is wrong.

Statement 1 and 3 are correct.

IASbaba Reference: ILP VAN


 

Q.) With reference to Indian National Movement, consider the following pairs:

Person Position held
1. Sir Tej Bahadur Sapru President, All India Liberal Federation
2. K. C. Neogy Member, The Constituent Assembly
3. P. C. Joshi General Secretary, Communist Party of India

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

All three statements are correctly matched.

IASbaba Reference: Modern India VAN


 

Q.) Which one of the following National Parks lies completely in the temperate alpine zone?

(a) Manas National Park

(b) Namdapha National Park

(c) Neora Valley National Park

(d) Valley of Flowers National Park

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Manas National Park – foothills of Eastern Himalayas – Himalayan subtropical zone

Namdapha National Park – Eastern Himalayas –  tropical evergreen forest to temperate broadleaf and mixed forest.

Neora Valley National Park – Sino-Himalayan Temperate Forest , Sino-Himalayan Subtropical Forest ,Indo-Chinese Tropical Moist Forest

Valley of Flowers National Park – Eastern Himalayan alpine shrub and meadows


 

Q.) With reference to Mughal India, what is/are the difference/differences between Jagirdar and Zamindar?

  1. Jagirdars were holders of land assignments in lieu of judicial and police duties, whereas Zamindars were holders of revenue rights without obligation to perform any duty other than revenue collection.
  2. Land assignments to Jagirdars were hereditary and revenue rights of Zamindars were not hereditary.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(e) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (d)

Explanation :

Individuals/Noblemen were given rights over revenue of the alloted jagirs (land) in-lieu of Military services to the state. Jagirdars kept a legion of soldiers and were responsible for their salaries and other needs. Jagirs were not hereditary

Typically hereditary, zamindars held enormous tracts of land and control over their peasants, from whom they reserved the right to collect tax on behalf of imperial courts or for military purposes.


 

Q.) With reference to land reforms in independent India, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) The ceiling laws were aimed at family holdings and not individual holdings.

(b) The major aim of land reforms was providing agricultural land to all the landless.

(c) It resulted in cultivation of cash crops as a predominant form of cultivation.

(d) Land reforms permitted no exemptions to the ceiling limits.

Solution (b)

Some States chose ‘family’ as the unit and some chose ‘individuals’ as the unit. Hence (a) is wrong. Correct answer is (b)- Detailed explanation is given in ILP VAN (below)

IASbaba Reference: ILP VAN


 

Q.) In which of the following relief sculpture inscriptions is ‘Ranyo Ashoka’ (King Ashoka) mentioned along with the stone portrait of Ashoka?

(a) Kanganahalli

(b) Sanchi

(c) Shahnazgarhi

(d) Sohgaura

Solution (a)

Explanation:

Kanganahalli Excavations:

The most important finding of the excavation include a stone sculptured slab bearing the name Raya Ashoka . The first inscribed portrait of Ashoka a (surrounded by female attendants and queens) found at Kanaganahalli, was unearthed from the ruined Buddhist stupa.


 

Q.) Consider the following:

  1. Deification of the Buddha
  2. Treading the path of Bodhisattavas
  3. Image worship and rituals

Which of the above is/are the feature/features of Mahayana Buddhism?

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 2 only

(c) 2 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

IASbaba Reference: ILP Test


 

Q.) With reference to forced labour (Vishti) in India during the Gupta period, which one of the following statement is correct?

(a) It was considered a source of income for the State, a sort of tax paid by the people.

(b) It was totally absent in the Madhya Pradesh and Kathiawar regions of the Gupta Empire.

(c) The forced labourer was entitled to weekly wages.

(d) The eldest son of the labourer was sent as the forced labourer.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

In the Gupta Age, the term Vishti referred to Forced labor. While the Kshatriyas obtained their percentage of the material surplus through the power of arms in the kind of taxes (Shulka, Bali and Kar etc.), forced labor (Balutam and Vishti), tithes and other perquisites. The Brahmin ministry strengthened its right to the social surplus by the moralistic impediment which was based on the intensity of the tribal righteousness of sharing.


 

Q.) Which one of the following groups of plants was domesticated in the ‘New World’ and introduced into the ‘Old World’?

a)   Tobacco, cocoa and rubber

b)   Tobacco, cotton and rubber

c)   Cotton, coffee and sugarcane

d)   Rubber, coffee and wheat

Solution (a)

Explanation – https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Columbian_exchange


 

Q.) Consider the following pairs:

            Famous place      River

  1.   Pandharpur : Chandrabhaga
  2.   Tiruchirappalli : Cauvery
  3.   Hampi : Malaprabha

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

  1. a)   1 and 2 only
  2. b)   2 and 3 only
  3. c)   1 and 3 only
  4. d)   1, 2 and 3

Solution (a)

Explanation:

Hampi – Tungabhadra River

IASbaba Reference – DNA

https://iasbaba.com/2019/05/daily-current-affairs-ias-upsc-prelims-and-mains-exam-1st-may-2019/


 

Q.) In a given year in India, official poverty lines are higher in some States than in other because

a)  Poverty rates vary from State to State

b)  Price levels vary from State to State

c)   Gross State Product varies from State to State

d) Quality of public distribution varies from States to States

Solution (b)

Explanation:

The poverty threshold, poverty limit or poverty line is the minimum level of income deemed adequate. This can vary state to state. Eg – Costs of living can vary from one state to another.


 

Q.) Consider the following statements:

  1.   Some species of turtles are herbivores
  2.   Some species of fish are herbivores.
  3.   Some species of marine mammals are herbivores.
  4.   Some species of snakes are viviparous.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

a)  1 and 3 only

b)  2,3 and 4 only

c)  2 and 4 only

d) 1,2,3 and 4

Solution (d)

Explanation:

All statements are very general due to the use of word ‘SOME’, which makes the answer (d).


 

Q.) Consider the following pairs:

              Wildlife                          Naturally found in

  1.   Blue-finned Mahseer : Cauvery River
  2.   Irrawaddy Dolphin : Chambal River
  3.   Rusty-spotted Cat : Eastern Ghats

Which of the pairs given above are correctly matched?

a)   1 and 2 only

b)   2 and 3 only

c)   1 and 3 only

d)   1,2 and 3

Solution (c)

Explanation:

Irrawaday Dolphin – Chilika Lake

IASbaba Reference – Babapedia


 

Q.) In the context of digital technologies for entertainment, consider the following statements:

  1.   In Augmented Reality (AR), a simulated environment is created and the physical world is completely shut out.
  2.   In Virtual Reality (VR), images generated from a computer are projected into real-life objects or surroundings.
  3.   AR allows individuals to be present in the world and improves the experience using the camera of smartphone or PC.
  4.   VR closes the world, and transposes an individual, providing complete immersion experience.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)   1 and 2 only

b)   3 and 4

c)   1, 2 and 3

d)   4 only

Solution (b)

Explanation:

With Augmented Reality, users continue to be in touch with the real world while interacting with virtual objects around them.

With Virtual Reality, the user is isolated from the real world while immersed in a world that is completely fabricated

IASbaba Reference:


 

Q.) With reference to the recent developments in science, which one of the following statements is not correct?

a)   Functional chromosomes can be created by joining segments of DNA taken from cells of different species.

b)   Pieces of artificial functional DNA can be created in laboratories.

c)   A piece of DNA taken out from an animal cell can be made to replicate outside a living cell in a laboratory.

d)   Cells taken out from plants and animals can be made to undergo cell division in laboratory petri dishes.

Solution (a)

Explanation:

Statement 3 is associated with cloning.

Statement 2 is associated with Artificial gene synthesis and DNA printing.

Statement 4 is associated with Tissue Culture.

Hence Statement 1 is correct.


 

Q.) Consider the following statements:

A digital signature is

  1.   an electronic record that identifies the certifying authority issuing it
  2.   used to serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet
  3.   an electronic method of signing an electronic document and ensuring that the original content is unchanged

Which of the statements given above is are/correct?

a)   1 only

b)   2 and 3 only

c)   3 only

d)   1, 2 and 3

Solution (c)

Explanation

Digital Signature Certificates (DSC) are the digital equivalent (that is electronic format) of physical or paper certificates. Few Examples of physical certificates are drivers’ licenses, passports or membership cards. Certificates serve as proof of identity of an individual for a certain purpose; for example, a driver’s license identifies someone who can legally drive in a particular country. Likewise, a digital certificate can be presented electronically to prove one’s identity, to access information or services on the Internet or to sign certain documents digitally.

http://www.mca.gov.in/MinistryV2/digitalsignaturecertificate.html

A digital signature is a mathematical scheme for verifying the authenticity of digital messages or documents. A valid digital signature, where the prerequisites are satisfied, gives a recipient very strong reason to believe that the message was created by a known sender (authentication), and that the message was not altered in transit (integrity).

Digital signatures are a standard element of most cryptographic protocol suites, and are commonly used for software distribution, financial transactions, contract management software, and in other cases where it is important to detect forgery or tampering.

It does not serve as a proof of identity of an individual to access information or server on Internet, since any person can use the same digital signature.

IASbaba Reference

https://iasbaba.com/2018/02/synopsis-iasbabas-tlp-2018-upsc-mains-general-studies-questions-2nd-february-2018-day-50/


 

Q.) In the context of wearable technology, which of the following tasks is/are accomplished by wearable devices?

  1.   Location identification of a person
  2.   Sleep monitoring of a person
  3.   Assisting the hearing impaired person

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a)   1 only

b)   2 and 3 only

c)   3 only

d)   1, 2 and 3

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Application of GPS, Apple Watch & Fitbit, Facett

IASbaba Reference – YK GIST

https://iasbaba.com/wp-content/uploads/2019/01/UPSC-IAS-IASbaba-Yojana-Kurukshetra-Gist-DECEMBER-2018.pdf


 

Q.) RNA interference (RNAi) technology has gained popularity in the last few years. Why?

  1.   It is used in developing gene silencing therapies.
  2.   It can be used in developing therapies for the treatment of cancer.
  3.   It can be used to develop hormone replacement therapies.
  4.   It can be used to produce crop plants that are resistant to viral pathogens

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a)   1, 2 and 4

b)   2 and 3

c)   1 and 3

d)   1 and 4 only

Solution (a)

Explanation:

Hormone replacement therapy (HRT), also known as menopausal hormone therapy (MHT) or postmenopausal hormone therapy (PHT, PMHT), is a form of hormone therapy used to treat symptoms associated with female menopause. These symptoms can include hot flashes, vaginal atrophy, accelerated skin aging, vaginal dryness, decreased muscle mass, sexual dysfunction, and bone loss. They are in large part related to the diminished levels of sex hormones that occur during menopause.

It is not associated with RNAi.


 

Q.) Recently scientists observed the merger of giant ‘blackholes’ billions of light years away from the Earth. What is the significance of this observation?

a)   ‘Higgs boson particles’ were detected.

b)   ‘Gravitational waves’ were detected.

c)   Possibility of Inter- galactic space travel through ‘wormhole’ was confirmed.

d)   It enabled the scientists to understand ‘singularity’.

Solution (d)

Explanation:

The world’s first black hole image vindicates Einstein’s theory – https://futurism.com/the-byte/black-hole-image-einstein-right-relativity

https://www.scientificamerican.com/article/supermassive-black-holes-collide-in-galactic-merger-grand-finales/

https://www.scientificamerican.com/article/ligos-latest-black-hole-merger-confirms-einstein-challenges-astrophysics1/?wt.mc=SA_Facebook-Share

IASbaba Reference – DNA

https://iasbaba.com/2018/11/iasbabas-daily-current-affairs-prelims-mains-focus-13th-november-2018/


 

Q.) Which of the following are the reasons for the occurrence of multi-drug resistance in microbial pathogens in India?

  1.   Genetic predisposition of some people
  2.   Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
  3.   Using antibiotics in livestock farming
  4.   Multiple chronic diseases in some people

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

a)   1 and 2

b)   2 and 3 only

c)   1, 3 and 4

d)   2, 3 and 4

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Major Causes of Antimicrobial Drug Desistance –

  •         Taking incorrect doses of antibiotics to cure diseases
  •         Using antibiotics in livestock farming

IASbaba Reference – DNA

https://iasbaba.com/2018/10/iasbabas-daily-current-affairs-prelims-mains-focus-15th-october-2018/


 

Q.)With reference to the Constitution of India, consider the following statements:

  1. No High Court shall have the jurisdiction to declare any central law to be constitutionally invalid.
  2. An amendment to the Constitution of India cannot be called into question by the Supreme Court of India.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (d)

Explanation:

Jurisdiction of the High Court

The jurisdiction of the High Courts have also been provided in Article 226 of the Constitution, and they can be divided into two part:

Territorial

The High Courts have the right to issue writs within the territory of the state which the High Court is concerned with. Under Article 226(2) the court has been granted a certain degree of extra-territorial jurisdiction as well. High Courts are allowed to issue writs to any government, authority or person outside their territorial jurisdiction if the whole or part of the cause of action arises in their concerned state.

Subject matter

High Courts have been granted a large ambit to exercise this power. A High Court can issue writs not only for the enforcement of Fundamental Rights given in Part III of the Constitution but also non-Fundamental Rights for which the Constitution of India has used the words “for any other purpose” to widen the scope of High Court’s Jurisdiction.

IASbaba Reference :60 Day Plan Week 1&2 , Full Mock 2 (Q.5)

ILP VAN – POLITY

 

Q.) Consider the following statements

  1. Purchasing Power Parity (PPP) exchange rates are calculated by comparing the prices of the same basket of goods and services in different countries.
  2. In terms of PPP dollars, India is the sixth largest economy in the world.

Which of the statements given above is / are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (a)

IASbaba Reference: Direct Question from VAN – Economy

60 Day Plan


 

Q.)With reference to the cultivation of Kharif crops in India in the last five years, consider the following statements:

  1. Area under rice cultivation is the highest.
  2. Area under the cultivation of jowar is more than that of oilseeds.
  3. Area of cotton cultivation is more than that of sugarcane.
  4. Area under sugarcane cultivation has steadily decreased.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution (a)

Area under kharif planting drops by 1.90% over previous year

Oilseeds and sugarcane saw the increase while rice, pulses, coarse cereals and cotton saw the decline. Meanwhile, data from the weather department shows monsoon rainfall has been 9% below normal so far this year.

Read More: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/news/economy/agriculture/area-under-kharif-planting-drops-by-1-90-over-previous-year/articleshow/66002263.cms


 

Q.) Among the agricultural commodities imported by India, which one of the following accounts for the highest imports in terms of value in the last five years?

(a) Spices

(b) Fresh fruits

(c) Pulses

(d) Vegetable oils

Solution (d)


 

Q.) In the context of polity, which one of the following would you accept as the most appropriate definition of liberty?

(a) Protection against the tyranny of political rulers

(b) Absence of restraint

(c) Opportunity to do whatever one likes

(d) Opportunity to develop oneself fully.

Solution (d)

Though option (b) and (d) are close. In the context of polity, the most appropriate definition of liberty would be option (d)

IASbaba Reference: ILP VAN Module 1 – POLITY (Part 1)


 

Q.) Which one of the following are not the most likely measure the government/ RBI takes to stop the side of Indian rupee?

a)   Curbing imports of non-essential goods and promoting exports.

b)   Encouraging Indian borrowers to issue rupee denominated Masala bonds

c)   Easing conditions relating to external commercial borrowing

d)     Following an expansionary monetary policy.

Solution (d)

Explanation

Expansionary monetary policy > increase in money supply > inflation > Weakening rupee.

IASbaba Reference: DNA

https://iasbaba.com/2019/04/daily-current-affairs-ias-upsc-prelims-and-mains-exam-6th-april-2019/


 

Q.) Consider the following statement:

The reserve bank of India’s directives relating to “Storage of Payment System Data” popularly known as data diktat, command the payment system providers that

  1.   They shall ensure that entire data relating to payment systems operated by them are stored in a system only in India.
  2.   They shall ensure that the systems are owned and operated by public sector enterprises.
  3.   They shall submit the consolidated system audit report to the comptroller and Auditor General of India by the end of the calendar year.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

a)   1 only

b)  1 and 2 only

c)   3 only

d) 1, 2 and 3 only

Solution (a)

Explanation:

The question is wrt. ‘Data Localisation’

Read More: https://www.rbi.org.in/scripts/NotificationUser.aspx?Id=11244

IASbaba Reference :DNA

https://iasbaba.com/2018/10/iasbabas-daily-current-affairs-prelims-mains-focus-19th-october-2018/


 

Q.) Which of the following adopted a law on data protection and privacy for its citizens known as “General Data Protection Regulation” in April 2016 and started implementation of it from 25th May, 2018?

a)  Australia

b)  Canada

c)   The European Union

d)  The United States of America

Solution (c)

Explanation:

The General Data Protection Regulation 2016/679 is a regulation in EU law on data protection and privacy for all individuals citizens of the European Union and the European Economic Area. It also addresses the export of personal data outside the EU and EEA areas.

IASbaba Reference: Babapedia


 

Q.) Recently, India signed a deal known as “action plan for prioritization and implementation for cooperation areas in nuclear field” with which of the following countries?

a)  Japan

b)  Russia

c)   The United Kingdom

d)  The United States of America

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field is associated with Russia and India.

Read More: https://economictimes.indiatimes.com/industry/energy/power/india-russia-sign-civil-nuclear-action-plan-for-second-plant-third-country-project/articleshow/66085647.cms


 

Q.) The money multiplier in an economy increases with which one of the following?

  1. a)  Increase in cash reserve ratio
  2. b)  Increase in the banking habit of the population
  3. c)   Increase in the statutory liquidity ratio
  4. d) Increase in the population of the country

Solution (b)

Explanation & IASbaba Reference:

In monetary economics, a money multiplier is one of various closely related ratios of commercial bank money to central bank money (also called the monetary base) under a fractional-reserve banking system.


 

Q.) The Service Area Approach was implemented under the purview of

(a) Integrated Rural Development Programme

(b) Lead Bank Scheme

(c) Mahatma Gandhi National Rural Employment Guarantee Scheme

(d) National Skill Development Mission

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Service area approach (SAA) is an improved version of area approach of Lead Bank Scheme.

The commercial banks / RRBs are also free to lend to any borrower of any rural and semi-urban area except under Government sponsored schemes where Scheme itself provides for obtention of ‘No Dues Certificate’.

IASbaba Reference : Economics Class


 

Q.) With Reference to the management of minor minerals in India, consider the following statements:

  1. Sand is a ‘minor mineral’ according to the prevailing law in the country.
  2. State Governments have the power to grant mining leases of minor minerals, but the powers regarding the formation of rules related to the grant of minor minerals lie with the Central Government.
  3. State Governments have the power to frame rules to prevent illegal mining of minor minerals.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (c)

Sand is a minor mineral, as defined under section 3(e) of the Mines and Minerals (Development and Regulation) Act, 1957 (MMDR Act). Section 15 of the MMDR Act empowers state governments to make rules for regulating the grant of mineral concessions in respect of minor minerals and for purposes connected therewith. The regulation of grant of mineral concessions for minor minerals is, therefore, within the legislative and administrative domain of the state governments. Under the power granted to them by section 15 of the MMDR Act, State Governments have framed their own minor minerals concession rules.

Further,section 23C of theMMDR Act, 1957 empowers state governments to frame rules to prevent illegal mining, transportation and storage of mineralsand for purposes connected therewith. Control of illegal mining is, therefore, under the legislative and administrative jurisdiction of state governments.

Sand is a minor or major mineral based on its usage!

http://www.arthapedia.in/index.php?title=Minor_Minerals


 

Q.) Consider the following statements:

  1. Most of India’s external debt is owed by governmental entities.
  2. All of India’s external debt is denominated in US dollars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (d)

At end-March 2018, India’s external debt witnessed an increase of 12.4 per cent over its level at end-March 2017, primarily on account of an increase in commercial borrowings, short-term debt and non-resident Indian (NRI) deposits. The increase in the magnitude of external debt was partly due to valuation loss resulting from the depreciation of the US dollar against major currencies. The external debt to GDP ratio stood at 20.5 per cent at end-March 2018, higher than its level of 20.0 per cent at end-March 2017.

Commercial borrowings continued to be the largest component of external debt with a share of 38.2 per cent, followed by NRI deposits (23.8 per cent) and short-term trade credit (19.0 per cent).

US dollar denominated debt continued to be the largest component of India’s external debt with a share of 49.5 per cent at end-March 2018, followed by the Indian rupee (35.8 per cent), SDR (5.5 per cent), Japanese yen (4.8 per cent) and euro (3.4 per cent).

IASbaba Reference:


 

Q.) Which of the following is not included in the assets of a commercial bank in India?

(a) Advances

(b) Deposits

(c) Investments

(d) Money at call and short notice

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Bank’s assets comprises cash, money at short notice, bills and securities discounted, bank’s investments, loans sanctioned by the bank, etc. Bank’s cash in hand, cash with other banks and cash with central bank (RBI) are its assets. When a bank makes money available at short notice to other banks and financial institutions for a very short period of 1-14 days it is also treated as bank’s asset. Apart from these items bank always make money available to people on the form of loans and advances.

Bank’s liabilities constitute five major items. The share capital, the contribution which shareholders have contributed for starting the bank. Reserve funds are the money, which the bank has accumulated over the years from its undistributed profits. Deposits are the money owned by customers and therefore it is a liability of a bank.

 IASbaba Reference : Economics Class – Banking


 

Q.) In the context of India, which of the following factors is/are contributor/contributors to reducing the risk of a currency crisis?

  1. The foreign currency earnings of India’s IT sector
  2. Increasing the government expenditure
  3. Remittances from Indians abroad

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 1 and 3 only

(c) 2 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Currency risk, commonly referred to as exchange-rate risk, arises from the change in price of one currency in relation to another. Investors or companies that have assets or business operations across national borders are exposed to currency risk that may create unpredictable profits and losses.

Over spending by government generally increases the risk hence 2nd statement is not correct.

IASbaba Reference : Economics Class – External Sector


 

Q.) Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past?

(a) First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)

(b) Rajamannar Committee (1969)

(c) Sarkaria Commission (1983)

(d) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)

Solution (c)

IASbaba Reference: Direct QuestionILP VAN


 

Q.) Which of the following is issued by registered foreign portfolio investors to overseas investors who want to be part of the Indian stock market without registering themselves directly?

(a) Certificate of Deposit

(b) Commercial Paper

(c) Promissory Note

(d) Participatory Note

Solution (d)

Participatory Notes commonly known as P-Notes or PNs are instruments issued by registered foreign institutional investors (FII) to overseas investors, who wish to invest in the Indian stock markets without registering themselves with the market regulator.

IASbaba Reference: ILP Test & VAN

ILP VAN


 

Q.) Consider the following statements:

  1. As per law, the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority exists at both National and State levels.
  2. People’s participation is mandatory in the compensatory afforestation programmes carried out under the Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (a)

Explanation:

Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act, 2016 provides for setting up Compensatory Afforestation Fund Management and Planning Authority (CAMPA) at both central and state level to ensure expeditious and transparent utilization of amounts realised in lieu of forest land diverted for non-forest purpose. The utilization of funds is expected to mitigate the impact of diversion of such forest land.

The payments into the funds include compensatory afforestation, NPV, and any project specific payments. The National Fund will get 10% of funds collected and the remaining 90% will go to respective State Fund.

The collected funds will be utilised for afforestation, regeneration of forest ecosystem, wild life protection and infrastructure development.

IASbaba Reference: ILP VAN Environment


 

Q.) In India, which of the following review the independent regulators in sectors like telecommunications, insurance, electricity, etc.?

  1. Ad Hoc Committees set up by the Parliament
  2. Parliamentary Department Related Standing Committees
  3. Finance Commission
  4. Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission
  5. NITI Aayog

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2

(b) 1, 3 and 4

(c) 3, 4 and 5

(d) 2 and 5

Solution (a)

The Parliamentary committees are of two kinds – Standing or permanent committees and Ad hoc committees. The former are elected or appointed periodically and they work on a continuous basis. The latter are created on an ad hoc basis as the need arises and they are dissolved after they complete the task assigned to them.

A Standing Committee is a committee consisting of Members of Parliament. It is a permanent and regular committee which is constituted from time to time according to the provisions of an Act of Parliament or Rules of Procedure and Conduct of Business.

Finance Commission, Financial Sector Legislative Reforms Commission and NITI Aayog are advisory bodies with a mandate of planning rather than reviewing the regulatory bodies.


 

Q.) With reference to India’s Five-Year Plans, which of the following statements is/are correct?

  1. From the Second Five-Year Plan, there was a determined thrust towards substitution of basic and capital good industries.
  2. The Fourth Five-Year Plan adopted the objective of correcting the earlier trend of increased concentration of wealth and economic power.
  3. In the Fifth Five –Year Plan, for the first time, the financial sector was included as an integral part of the Plan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (a)

The Second Plan focused on the development of the public sector and “rapid Industrialisation”. The plan followed the Mahalanobis model, an economic development model developed by the Indian statistician Prasanta Chandra Mahalanobis in 1953. The plan attempted to determine the optimal allocation of investment between productive sectors in order to maximise long-run economic growth.

At this time Indira Gandhi was the Prime Minister. The Indira Gandhi government nationalised 14 major Indian banks and the Green Revolution in India advanced agriculture.

The Fifth Five-Year Plan laid stress on employment, poverty alleviation (Garibi Hatao), and justice. The plan also focused on self-reliance in agricultural production and defence.

IASbaba Reference :


 

Q.) With reference to the Legislative Assembly of a State in India, consider the following statements:

  1. The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.
  2. When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows the Lok Sabha rule on that matter.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (a)

The Governor makes a customary address to Members of the House at the commencement of the first session of the year.

Hence statement 1 is correct.

When a State Legislature does not have a rule on a particular matter, it follows conventions. Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

IASbaba Reference : Polity Class


 

Q.) Consider the following statements:

  1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’.
  2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
  3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.
  4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its member States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2, 3 and 4 only

(c) 2 and 4 only

(d) 1, 2, 3 and 4

Solution (c)

Explanation:

The United Nations Convention against Corruption is the only legally binding universal anti-corruption instrument.

The Convention covers five main areas: preventive measures, criminalization and law enforcement, international cooperation, asset recovery, and technical assistance and information exchange. The Convention covers many different forms of corruption, such as bribery, trading in influence, abuse of functions, and various acts of corruption in the private sector. A highlight of the Convention is the inclusion of a specific chapter on asset recovery, aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners, including countries from which they had been taken illicitly. The vast majority of United Nations Member States are parties to the Convention.

The United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime, adopted by General Assembly resolution 55/25 of 15 November 2000, is the main international instrument in the fight against transnational organized crime.

The General Assembly adopted the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime and two of its supplementary Protocols namely: the Protocol to Prevent, Suppress and Punish Trafficking in Persons, Especially Women and Children and the Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Air and Sea.

IASbaba Reference: ILP Babapedia


Q.) Consider the following statements:

  1. As per recent amendment to the Indian Forest Act, 1927, forest dwellers have the right to sell the bamboos grown on forest areas.
  2. As per the Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers(Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006, bamboo is a minor forest produce.
  3. The Scheduled Tribes and Other Traditional Forest Dwellers (Recognition of Forest Rights) Act, 2006 allows ownership of minor forest produce to forest dwellers.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Explanation:

IASbaba Reference: DNA

https://iasbaba.com/2019/03/daily-current-affairs-ias-upsc-prelims-and-mains-exam-23rd-march-2019/


 

Q.) Consider the following statements:

  1. According to the Indian Patents Act, a biological process to create a seed can be patented in India.
  2. In India, there is no Intellectual Property Appellate Board.
  3. Plant varieties are not eligible to be patented in India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 and 3 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (c)

IASbaba Reference : Babapedia : Intellectual Property Rights


 

Q.) As per the Solid Waste Management Rules, 2016 in India, which one of the following statements is correct?

(a) Waste generator has to segregate waste into five categories.

(b) The Rules are applicable to notified urban local bodies, notified towns and all industrial townships only.

(c) The Rules provide for exact and elaborate criteria for the identification of sites for landfills and waste processing facilities.

(d) It is mandatory on the part of waste generator that the waste generated in one district cannot be moved to another district.

Solution (c)


 

Q.) Consider the following statements:

As per the Industrial Employment (Standing Orders) Central (Amendment) Rules, 2018

  1. If rules for fixed-term employment are implemented, it becomes easier for the firms/companies to lay off workers
  2. No notice of termination of employment shall be necessary in the case of temporary workman

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

Reference:

https://labour.gov.in/sites/default/files/FTE%20Final%20Notification.pdf


 

Q.) With reference to Asian infrastructure investment bank (AIIB), consider the following statement:

  1. AIIB has more than 80 member nations.
  2. India is the largest shareholder in AIIB.
  3. AIIB does not have any members from outside Asia.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (a)

Explanation:

The Asian Infrastructure Investment Bank (AIIB) is a multilateral development bank with a mission to improve social and economic outcomes in Asia. Headquartered in Beijing, it has now grown to 97 approved members worldwide.

The allocated shares are based on the size of each member country’s economy (calculated using GDP Nominal (60%) and GDP PPP (40%)), whether they are an Asian or Non-Asian Member, and the number of shares determines the fraction of authorized capital in the bank. China is the largest shareholder.

IASbaba Reference: DNA

https://iasbaba.com/2018/03/iasbabas-daily-current-affairs-prelims-mains-focus-1st-march-2018/


 

Q.) The chairman of public sector banks are selected by the

(a) Banks Board Bureau

(b) Reserve Bank of India

(c) Union Ministry of finance

(d) Management of concerned bank

Solution (a)

https://www.livemint.com/Opinion/GgTaUs5JX4ugJZV3uKaL9N/How-public-sector-bank-CEOs-are-selected.html

IASbaba Reference:


 

Q.) Consider the following statements:

  1. Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) Is the first regulatory body set up by the Government of India.
  2. One of the tasks of PNGRB is to ensure competitive markets for gas.
  3. Appeals against the decisions of PNGRB go before the Appellate Tribunals for Electricity.

Which one of the statements given above is correct?

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 and 3 only

(c) 1 and 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (b)

Explanation:

The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board (PNGRB) was constituted under The Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board Act, 2006.

The Act provide for the establishment of Petroleum and Natural Gas Regulatory Board to protect the interests of consumers and entities engaged in specified activities relating to petroleum, petroleum products and natural gas and to promote competitive markets and for matters connected therewith or incidental thereto.

Subject to the provisions of this Act, the Appellate Tribunal established under section 110 of the Electricity Act, 2003 (36 of 2003) shall be the Appellate Tribunal for the purposes of this Act and the said Appellate Tribunal shall exercise the jurisdiction, powers and authority conferred on it by or under this Act.


 

Q.) The economic cost of food grains to the food cooperation of India is minimum support price and bonus (if any) paid to the farmers plus

(a) Transport cost only

(b) Interest cost only

(c) Procurement incidentals and distribution cost

(d) Procurement incidentals and charges for godowns

Solution (c)

Explanation

               :

Components of economic cost of food grains incurred by the Food Corporation of India Source: FCI Annual Reports.


 

Q.) With reference to the Constitution of India, prohibitions or limitations or provisions contained in ordinary laws cannot act as prohibitions or limitations on the constitutional powers under Article 142. It could mean which one of the following?

(a) The decisions taken by the Election Commission of India while discharging its duties cannot be challenged in any court of law.

(b) The Supreme Court of India is not constrained in the exercise of its powers by laws made by the Parliament.

(c) In the event of grave financial crisis in the country, the President of India can declare Financial Emergency without the counsel from the Cabinet.

(d) State Legislatures cannot make laws on certain matters without the concurrence of Union Legislature.

Solution (b)

Explanation:

Article 142 in The Constitution Of India 1949

142 – Enforcement of decrees and orders of Supreme Court and unless as to discovery, etc ( 1 ) The Supreme Court in the exercise of its jurisdiction may pass such decree or make such order as is necessary for doing complete justice in any cause or matter pending before it, and any decree so passed or orders so made shall be enforceable throughout the territory of India in such manner as may be prescribed by or under any law made by Parliament and, until provision in that behalf is so made, in such manner as the President may by order prescribe

IASbaba Reference: Babapedia


 

Q.) Which Article of the Constitution of India safeguards one’s right to marry the person of one’s choice?

(a) Article 19

(b) Article 21

(c) Article 25

(d) Article 29

Solution (b)

IASbaba Reference: DNA

 

https://iasbaba.com/2018/07/iasbabas-daily-current-affairs-prelims-mains-focus-11th-july-2018/


 

Q.) Consider the following statements:

The Environment Protection Act, 1986 empowers the Government of India to

  1. State the requirement of public participation in the process of environmental protection and the procedure and manner in which it is sought
  2. Lay down the standards for emission or discharge of environmental pollutants from various sources

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (c)

IASbaba Reference : VAN Environment


 

Q.) What was the purpose of the Inter-Creditor Agreement signed by Indian banks and financial institutions recently?

(a) To lessen the Government of India’s perennial burden of fiscal deficit and current account deficit.

(b) To support the infrastructure projects of central and state governments.

(c) To act as independent regulator in case of applications for loans of Rs. 50 Crore or more.

(d) To aim at faster resolution of stressed assets of Rs. 50 Crore or more which are under consortium lending.

Solution (d)

24 lenders led by SBI and PNB signed an inter-creditor agreement to speed up the resolution of stressed assets in the range of Rs 500 million-Rs 5 billion under consortium lending. As per the agreement, the ICA is to be entered into by 22 public sector banks that include India Post Payments Bank, 19 private sector banks and 32 foreign banks. Other signatories in the agreement will include 12 leading financial institutions such as LIC, Power Finance Corporation and Rural Electrification Corporation etc.

The lenders in the agreement will jointly appoint a lead lender who will function on behalf of the entire group. The leading lender will then be required to put forth the resolution plan for the non-performing assets (NPAs) before the group and if it is given a go-ahead by two thirds of the lenders, the proposal will qualify to be taken up for resolution of the given account.

IASbaba Reference: 60 days Plan – Day 5


 

Q.) With reference to communication technology, what is/are the difference(s) between LTE (Long Term Evolution) and VoLTE (Voice over Long Term Evolution)?

  1. LTE is commonly marketed as 3G and VoLTE is commonly marketed as advanced 3G.
  2. LTE is data only technology and VoLTE is voice only technology.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

(a) 1 only

(b) 2 only

(c) Both 1 and 2

(d) Neither 1 nor 2

Solution (d)

LTE is a mobile Internet technology standard. It’s an abbreviation of Long Term Evolution. 4G (or fourth generation) is just a common name given to LTE technology. In short, 4G and LTE are synonyms.

VoLTE is a technology wherein you can simultaneously send voice and data over the network without diminishing quality of voice. In case of LTE, if you make a voice call and you also keep your data connection on, the quality of voice will reduce. So, in order to make a good quality voice call, you will have to switch off data. You may have noticed that in case of 2G and 3G, while you are making phone call, some phones will automatically stop data transfer so as to preserve the voice quality.

But in case of VoLTE, the voice quality will not reduce even if your data connection is on. With VoLTE it is very easy to transmit telephone conversation over the data network.

 

Comparison chart of LTE and VoLTE

LTE                                                 VoLTE

1.Stands for Long Term Evolution                            1. Stands for Voice over LTE

2. Primarily designed to be a data-only technology 2.Designed to carry both voice and data

3. Does not natively support voice transmission. 3. Supports voice as well as data transmission.

4. Quality of voice reduces if data connection is left on. 4. Voice quality remains excellent even if the data connection is on

IASbaba Reference: ILP VAN – IT and Communication


 

Q.) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act, 2017?

  1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and 3 months post-delivery paid leave.
  2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily.
  3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

(a) 1 and 2 only

(b) 2 only

(c) 3 only

(d) 1, 2 and 3

Solution (c)

The Maternity Benefit (Amendment) Act 2017 has increased the duration of paid maternity leave available for women employees to 26 weeks from 12 weeks. The paid maternity leave can be availed 8 weeks before the expected date of delivery. Before the amendment, it was 6 weeks. For those women who are expecting after having 2 children, the duration of the leave remains unaltered at 12 weeks.

The amended Act has mandated crèche facility for every establishment employing 50 or more employees. The women employees should be permitted to visit the facility 4 times during the day.

IASbaba Reference ILP Test 19 – History and Current Affairs


 

Q.) Which one of the following is not a sub-index of the World Bank’s Ease of Doing Business Index?

(a) Maintenance of law and order.

(b) Paying taxes

(c) Registering property

(d) Dealing with construction permits

Solution (a)

The ease of doing business index is an index created by Simeon Djankov at the World Bank Group.

A nation’s ranking on the index is based on the average of 10 subindices:

  • Starting a business – Procedures, time, cost and minimum capital to open a new business
  • Dealing with construction permits – Procedures, time and cost to build a warehouse
  • Getting electricity – procedures, time and cost required for a business to obtain a permanent electricity connection for a newly constructed warehouse
  • Registering property – Procedures, time and cost to register commercial real estate
  • Getting credit – Strength of legal rights index, depth of credit information index
  • Protecting investors – Indices on the extent of disclosure, extent of director liability and ease of shareholder suits
  • Paying taxes – Number of taxes paid, hours per year spent preparing tax returns and total tax payable as share of gross profit
  • Trading across borders – Number of documents, cost and time necessary to export and import
  • Enforcing contracts – Procedures, time and cost to enforce a debt contract
  • Resolving insolvency – The time, cost and recovery rate (%) under bankruptcy proceeding

IASbaba Reference: Test 34 Economics and Current Affairs, ILP Babapedia

 

ILP -Babapedia


 

Q.) In India, ‘extended producer responsibility’ was introduced as an important feature in which of the following?

(a) The Bio-medical Waste (Management and Handling) Rules, 1998.

(b) The Recycled Plastic (Manufactured and Usage) rules, 1999.

(c) The e-waste (management and handling) Rules, 2011.

(d) THE Food Safety and Standard Regulations, 2011.

Solution (c)

The EPR is a policy approach under which producers are given a significant responsibility—financial or physical—for the treatment or disposal of post-consumer products.

Accordingly in the amended new E-Waste Rules 2016, the EPR authorisation has been made Central Pollution Control Board’s responsibility with pan India implementation, diverting from the responsibility of SPCBs, thus reducing the load of SPCBs significantly.

IASbaba Reference : DNA

https://iasbaba.com/2016/03/iasbabas-daily-current-affairs-24th-march-2016/


 

Q.) In the context of any country, which one of the following would be considered as part of its social capital?

(a) The proportion of literates in the population.

(b) The stock of its buildings, other than infrastructure and machines.

(c) The size of population in the working age group

(d) The level of mutual trust and harmony in the society

Solution (d)

Social capital broadly refers to those factors of effectively functioning social groups that include such things as interpersonal relationships, a shared sense of identity, a shared understanding, shared norms, shared values, trust, cooperation, and reciprocity.

IASbaba Reference: ILP – Test 40 Full Mock 5


 

Q.) Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India:

  1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
  2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
  3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
  4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

(a) 1, 2 and 3

(b) 2, 3 and 4

(c) 1, 2 and 4

(d) , 3 and 4

Solution (c)

Explanation:

75 tribal groups have been categorized categorized by Ministry of Home Affairs as Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTG)s. PVTGs reside in 18 States and UT of A&N Islands. The Ministry of Tribal Affairs implements the Scheme of “Development of Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs)” exclusively for them . Under the scheme, Conservation-cum-Development (CCD)/Annual Plans are to be prepared by each State/UT for their PVTGs based on their need assessment, which are then appraised and approved by the Project Appraisal Committee of the Ministry. Activities for development of PVTGs are undertaken in Sectors of Education, Health, Livelihood and Skill Development , Agricultural Development , Housing & Habitat, Conservation of Culture etc.

IASbaba Reference: ILP Test Series & Babapedia

There are 75 PVTGs. This helps one to eliminate other options and decipher correct answer.


TO DOWNLOAD THE PDF ->CLICK HERE


 

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IASbaba Team

 

 

 

 

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