DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 25th March 2023

Syllabus

• Prelims – Geography and Environment and Ecology

Context: Recently, the Union Minister of Coal, Mines and Parliamentary Affairs spoke on the extraction of Coal Bed Methane in the Lok Sabha.

About Coal Bed Methane:-

IMAGE SOURCE: Natural Gas Drilling Basics – Lawrence & Mercer ALLARM – A Citizen Science Initiative from Westminster College (google.com)

• It is an unconventional form of natural gas.
• It is found in coal deposits or coal seams.
• It is formed during the process of coalification, the transformation of plant material into coal.

Extraction:-

• Coal Bed Methane is extracted from unconventional gas reservoirs
• Unconventional gas reservoirs are where gas is extracted directly from the rock that is the source of the gas
• For example shale in the case of shale gas and coal in the case of CBM

Process:-

• The methane is held underground within the coal and is extracted by drilling into the coal seam and removing the groundwater.
• The resulting drop in pressure causes methane to be released from the coal.

Uses of Coal Bed Methane:-

• It can be used in Power generation.
• It can be used as Compressed natural gas (CNG) auto fuel.
• It can be used as a feedstock for fertilisers.
• It can be used for Industrial uses such as cement production, rolling mills, steel plants, and methanol production.

Reserves in India:-

IMAGE SOURCE: Coal Bed Methane IN INDIA MAP UPSC – Bing

• The country’s coal and CBM reserves are found in around 12 states of India.
• The Gondwana sediments of eastern India hold the bulk.
• The Damodar Koel valley and Son valley are prospective areas for CBM development.
• CBM projects existing in Raniganj coalfields, the Parbatpur block in Jharia coalfield and the East and West Bokaro coalfields.
• The Son valley includes the Sonhat North and Sohagpur East and West blocks.

MUST READ: Methane Emissions

SOURCE: PIB

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022)

1. Monazite is a source of rare earth.
2. Monazite contains thorium.
3. Monazite occurs naturally in the entire Indian coastal sands in India.
4. In India, Government bodies only can process or export monazite.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

1. 1, 2 and 3 only
2. 1, 2 and 4 only
3. 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2020)

1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury.
2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment.
3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Syllabus

• Prelims –Environment and Ecology

Context: Recent studies suggest that Climate change is causing Western Disturbances to weaken.

About Western Disturbances:-

IMAGE SOURCE: Readying to pack your woollens up? Think again! Extreme weather conditions in North-West India next week will chill you to the bone – India Today

• These are low-pressure areas embedded in the Westerlies.
• Westerlies: the planetary winds that flow from west to east between 30°-60° latitude.
• Disturbance in the name indicates an area of “disturbed” or reduced air pressure.
• Western disturbances are formed naturally.
• They are labelled as an extra-tropical storms.
• Extra-tropical: it means outside the tropics.
• As the WD originates outside the tropical region, the word “extra-tropical” is used for them.
• They originate in the Mediterranean region and travel over Iran, Iraq, Afghanistan and Pakistan to enter India loaded with moisture
• In India, the Himalayas obstruct them, causing rain and snow in the western Himalayas.
• They usually bring mild rain during January-February, which is beneficial to the rabi crop.
• Since wheat is one of the most important Rabi crops and is the staple diet of people in this region, winter showers contribute to meeting India’s food security.
• These are associated with a cloudy sky, higher night temperatures and unusual rain.
• Excessive precipitation due to western disturbances can cause crop damage, landslides, floods and avalanches over the Indo-Gangetic plains.
• They occasionally bring cold wave conditions and dense fog.

MUST READ: NORTHEAST (WINTER) MONSOON

SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022)

1. High clouds primarily reflect solar radiation and cool the surface of the Earth.
2. Low clouds have a high absorption of infrared radiation emanating from the Earth’s surface and thus cause a warming effect.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021)

1. In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds.
2. In the temperate Zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 and 2

Syllabus

• Prelims –Art and Culture

Context: Recently, the Vedic Heritage Portal created by the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts was inaugurated.

About Vedic Heritage Portal:-

• The ‘Vedic Heritage Portal’ created by the Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts (IGNCA).
• It is a one-stop solution for common users and researchers seeking any information regarding ‘Vedic heritage.
• It gives detailed information about oral traditions, a textual traditions in form of published books/manuscripts or implements.
• It aims to communicate messages enshrined in the Vedas.
• It will help common people to have a general understanding of the Vedas.
• The audio-visual recording of four Vedas has been uploaded on the Vedic Heritage portal.
• The portal has over 18 thousand mantras of the four Vedas with a duration of over 550 hours. 

About Indira Gandhi National Centre for the Arts:-

• The IGNCA comes under of Ministry of Culture.
• It was established in 1987 as an autonomous institution.
• The founder trustees of IGNCA were Shri Rajiv Gandhi, Shri R. Venkataraman, Shri P.V. Narasimha Rao, Smt. Pupul Jayakar, the Finance Minister of 1987, Shri H. Y. Sharada Prasad and Dr. Kapila Vatsyayan.
• It is a centre for research, academic pursuit, and dissemination in the field of the arts.
• The IGNCA has six functional units: –
  •  Kala Nidhi, the multi-form library
•             Kala Kosa, devoted mainly to the study and publication of fundamental texts in Indian languages
  •  Janapada Sampada, engaged in lifestyle studies
  •  Kaladarsana, the executive unit which transforms researches and studies
  • Cultural Informatics , which applies technology tools for cultural preservation and propagation

• • Sutradhara, the administrative section that acts as a spine supporting and coordinating all the activities.
• 5 trees were planted during its establishment:-
  • Asvattha (Ficus Religiosa), popularly known as the Bodhi tree, symbolizing enlightenment
  •  Nyagrodha (Ficus Bengalensis), associated with the landscaping of JANAPADA SAMPADA .
  • Asoka (Saraca Indica) associated with KALANIDHI .
  • Arjuna (Terminalia) associated with KALAKOSA.
  • Kadamba (Anthocephallus Camba) associated with KALADARSANA
• The IGNCA has a trust (Board of Trustees), which meets regularly to give general direction about the Centre’s work.
• The Executive Committee, drawn from among the Trustees, functions under a Chairman.

Objectives:-

• to serve as a major resource centre for the arts.
• to undertake research and publication programmes of reference works, glossaries, dictionaries and encyclopaedia concerning the arts and the humanities
• to establish a tribal and folk arts division with a core collection for conducting systematic scientific studies and for live presentations.
• to provide a forum for a creative and critical dialogue through performances, exhibitions, multi-media projections, conferences, seminars and workshops between and amongst the diverse arts, traditional and cotemporary
• to promote an network with national and international institutions
• to conduct related research in the arts, humanities and culture.

About Kala Vaibhav:-

• It is a virtual museum.
• It is based on 64 arts, through which,
• Objective: to make the world more familiar with India’s architecture, painting, drama, music, and thereby the rich history of the country’s glorious culture.

MUST READ: Mandala Art

SOURCE: THE HINDU

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs: (2018)

Institution                                     Founder

1. Sanskrit college at Benaras    William Jones
2. Calcutta Madarsa                   Warren Hastings
3. Fort William college               Arthur Wellesley

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only

Q.2) With reference to the difference between the culture of Rigvedic Aryans and Indus Valley people, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2017)

1. Rigvedic Aryans used the coat of mail and helmet in warfare whereas the people of Indus Valley Civilization did not leave any evidence of using them.
2. Rigvedic Aryans knew gold, silver and copper whereas Indus Valley people knew only copper and iron.
3. Rigvedic Aryans had domesticated the horse whereas there is no evidence of Indus Valley people having been aware of this animal.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Syllabus

• Prelims –Polity

Context: Congress leader Rahul Gandhi has been disqualified from the Lok Sabha recently.

About Disqualification of Member of parliaments:-

Constitutional provisions:-

• The provision for disqualification is given in Article 102 of the Constitution.
• It specifies that a person shall be disqualified for contesting elections and being a Member of Parliament under certain conditions:
  • If he holds any office of profit under the Union or state government (except that of a minister or any other office exempted by Parliament).
  • If he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a court.
  • If he is an undischarged insolvent.
  • If he is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance to a foreign state
  • If he is so disqualified under any law made by Parliament.
  • Article 102 also authorises Parliament to make laws determining conditions of disqualifications.
  • There are analogous provisions for members of state legislatures.

Defection under The Representation of the People Act, 1951:-

Disqualification on Imprisonment:

• The Representation of the People Act, 1951 provides that a person will be disqualified if convicted and sentenced to imprisonment for two years or more.
• The person is disqualified for the period of imprisonment and a further six years.

Exception for sitting members:

• They have been provided a period of three months from the date of conviction to appeal
• The disqualification will not be applicable until the appeal is decided.

About Disqualification on Ground of Defection:

• The Constitution also lays down that a person shall be disqualified from being a member of Parliament if he is so disqualified on the ground of defection under the provisions of the Tenth Schedule.

Important Supreme Court Judgements:

• Union of India (UOI) v. Association for Democratic Reforms,2002:-
  • The SC held that every candidate, contesting an election to the Parliament, State Legislatures, or Municipal Corporation, has to declare their criminal records, financial records, and educational qualifications along with their nomination paper.
• Ramesh Dalal vs. Union of India,2005:
  • The SC held that a sitting MP or MLA shall also be subject to disqualification from contesting elections if he is convicted and sentenced to not less than 2 years of imprisonment by a court of law.
• Lily Thomas v. Union of India,2013:
  • The SC held that Section 8(4) of The Representation of the People Act, 1951 is unconstitutional which allows MPs and MLAs who are convicted to continue in office till an appeal against such conviction is disposed of.
  • The court held that MP/MLA convicted for two years or above would be disqualified immediately.
• Krishnamurthy v. Sivakumar & Ors,2015:
  • The SC held that disclosure of criminal antecedents (especially heinous crimes) of a candidate at the time of filing of nomination paper as mandated by law was a categorically imperative.

MUST READ: Defamation Case

SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) With reference to anti-defection law in India, consider the following statements: (2022)

1. The law specifies that a nominated legislator cannot join any political party within six months of being appointed to the House.
2. The law does not provide any time-frame within which the presiding officer has to decide a defection case.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021)

1. In India, there is no law restricting the candidates from contesting in one Lok Sabha election from three constituencies.
2. In 1991 Lok Sabha Election, Shri Devi Lal contested from three Lok Sabha constituencies.
3. As per the existing rules, if a candidate contests in one Lok Sabha election from many constituencies, his/her party should bear the cost of bye-elections to the constituencies vacated by him/her in the event of him/her winning in all the constituencies.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 2 and 3

Syllabus

• Prelims –Polity

Context: The parliamentary procedure of guillotine may come in use in the recent session of the parliament.

About the parliamentary procedure of guillotine:-

• In legislative parlance, “guillotine” means to bunch together and fast-track the passage of financial business.
• Application: the procedure is used to save time when all the clauses of a measure cannot be discussed in the allotted time during the Budget session.
• After the Budget is presented, Parliament goes into recess for about three weeks, during which time the House Standing Committees examine Demands for Grants for various Ministries and prepare reports.
• After Parliament reassembles, the Business Advisory Committee (BAC) draws up a schedule for discussions on the Demands for Grants.
• Given the limitation of time, the House cannot take up the expenditure demands of all Ministries.
•  Therefore, the BAC identifies some important Ministries for discussion.
• Members discuss the policies and working of Ministries.
• Once the allotted time to discuss the clauses of the Bill is over, the Speaker of the House rolls out guillotine closure.
• The undiscussed clauses of a bill or resolution are placed for vote alongside the discussed portions.

Implications:-

• Once the Speaker of the House applies the guillotine, all the outstanding demands for grants, whether discussed or not, are put to vote at once.

MUST READ: Finance bill

SOURCE:THE INDIAN EXPRESS

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Along with the Budget, the Finance Minister also places other documents before the Parliament which include ‘The Macro Economic Framework Statement’. The aforesaid document is presented because this is mandated by(2020)

1. Long standing parliamentary convention
2. Article 112 and Article 110(1) of the Constitution of India
3. Article 113 of the Constitution of India
4. Provisions of the Fiscal Responsibility and Budget Management Act, 2003

Q.2) With reference to the Parliament of India, consider the following statements: (2017)

1. A private member’s bill is a bill presented by a Member of Parliament who is not elected but only nominated by the President of India.
2. Recently, a private member’s bill has been passed in the Parliament of India for the first time in its history.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Syllabus

• Prelims –Modern Indian History

Context: The Shaheed Diwas (martyrdom day of Shaheed Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru) was observed recently.

About Shaheed Diwas:-

• It is observed on 23rd March.
• It is also known as Martyrs’ Day or Sarvodaya Day.
• It was on this day that Bhagat Singh, Sukhdev and Rajguru were executed by the British government in 1931.
• They were hanged to death for assassinating John Saunders, a British police officer in 1928.
• They had mistaken him for British police superintendent James Scott who had ordered lathi charge, which eventually led to the death of Lala Lajpat Rai.

Nehru about Bhagat singh:-

• Nehru had said, Whether I agree with him or not, my heart is full of admiration for the courage and self-sacrifice of a man like Bhagat Singh.
• Courage of the Bhagat Singh type is exceedingly rare

About Sukhdev:-

• He was a famous Indian revolutionary who played a major role in the India’s struggle for Independence.
• He  was a member of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA).
• He organized revolutionary cells in Punjab and other areas of North India.
• He even went on to educate the youth at the National College in Lahore, greatly inspiring them about India’s glorious past. He along with other renowned revolutionaries started the ‘Naujawan Bharat Sabha’ at Lahore
  • It was an organization involved in various activities, mainly gearing the youth for the freedom struggle and putting an end to communalism.

• Sukhdev himself took active part in several revolutionary activities like the ‘Prison hunger strike’ in 1929.
• He was an accomplice of Bhagat Singh and Shivaram Rajguru.
• They  were involved in the assassination of Deputy Superintendent of Police, J.P. Saunders in 1928, to avenge the death of veteran leader, Lala Lajpat Rai, owing to excessive police beating in the Conspiracy case.

About Shivaram Rajguru:-

• He joined the Hindustan Socialist Republican Army (HSRA).
• Rajguru was born on 24 August 1908 at Khed to Parvati Devi and Harinarain Rajguru in a Marathi Brahmin family.
• He received primary education at Khed and later studied in New English High School at nana ka bara in Pune
• He was an accomplice of Bhagat Singh and Sukhdev who were charged for assassinating John Saunders, a British police officer in 1928.
• Rajguru was executed by the British government in 1931.

MUST READ: India’s Women Unsung Heroes of Freedom Struggle

SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022)

1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh
2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
3. Rash Behari Bose

Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only

Q.2) The Ghadr (Ghadar) was a: (2014)

1. revolutionary association of Indians with headquarters at San Francisco
2. nationalist organization operating from Singapore
3. militant organization with headquarters at Berlin
4. communist movement for India’s freedom with headquarters at Tashkent

Syllabus

• Prelims –Environment and Ecology

Context: Uttar Pradesh (U.P.) Forest Department has relocated a sarus crane, U.P. ‘s State bird, from Amethi to Raebareli’s Samaspur Bird Sanctuary.

About Sarus crane:-

• Its scientific name is  Grus Antigone.
• It is the tallest flying bird in the world.
• It is the least social crane species and is mostly found in pairs or small groups of three or four.
• They are monogamous birds and pairs mate for life.

Distribution and Habitat:-

IMAGE SOURCE: Sarus Crane | Wildlife Institute of India, an Autonomous Institute of MoEF, Govt. of India (wii.gov.in)

• The Sarus Crane is found in Southeast Asia, northern India, and northern Australia.
• The Indian Sarus Crane occurs in northern and central India, Terai Nepal and Pakistan.
• Once a common site in the paddy fields of Uttar Pradesh, Bihar, Rajasthan, West Bengal, Gujarat, Madhya Pradesh and Assam, the population of the Indian sarus crane is now on the decline.
• They primarily inhabit wetlands such as canals, marshes, and ponds which are suitable for their forage and nesting.
• They are sometimes found near human settlements.
•  They are found in Dhanauri wetland in UP .
  • It was declared as the state bird of Uttar Pradesh (UP) in 2014.

Conservation Status:-

• IUCN : Vulnerable
• CITES :   Appendix II
• Wildlife (Protection) Act of 1972: Schedule IV
  • It receives legal protection in India.

About Samaspur Bird Sanctuary:

• It is situated in the Rohaniya Development block of the Raebareli district, on Lucknow-Varanasi highway in UP.
• It was created in 1987 with the aim of protection and conservation of the wetland with special emphasis to the local and migratory birds, conservation of their natural habitat including aquatic plants and animals.

MUST READ: Nagaland’s Bird Count drive

SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Which of the following is not a bird? (2022)

1. Golden Mahseer
2. Indian Nightjar
3. Spoonbill
4. White Ibis

Q.2) Due to some reasons if there is a huge fall in the population of a species of butterflies, what could be its likely consequence/consequences? (2017)

1. Pollination of some plants could be adversely affected
2. There could be a drastic increase in the fungal infection of some cultivated plants
3. It could lead to a fall in the population of some species of wasps, spiders and birds

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Syllabus

• Prelims – Defence

Context: Konkan 2023, the annual bilateral maritime exercise between the Indian Navy and the Royal Navy, was held recently.

About Konkan 2023:-

• It is an annual bilateral maritime exercise between the Indian Navy and the UK’s Royal Navy.
• INS Trishul, a guided missile frigate, and HMS Lancaster, a Type 23 guided missile frigate, participated in this edition.
• It included gunnery shoots on the surface inflatable target ‘Killer Tomato’, helicopter operations, anti-air, and anti–submarine warfare drills, Visit Board Search and Seizure (VBSS), ship manoeuvres, and exchange of personnel.
• The exercise will help the Indian Navy and Royal Navy work together to improve maritime security and maintain a rules-based order in the region.

MUST READ: India-United Kingdom Relations

SOURCE: PIB

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) The term ‘West Taxes Intermediate’, sometimes found in news to a grade of (2020)

1. Crude oil
2. Bullion
3. Rare earth elements
4. Uranium

Q.2) Consider the following in respect of Indian Ocean Naval Symposium (IONS): (2017)

1. Inaugural IONS was held in India in 2015 under the chairmanship of the Indian Navy.
2. IONS is a voluntary initiative that seeks to increase maritime co-operation among navies of the littoral states of the Indian Ocean Region.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Syllabus

• Mains – GS 2 (Governance)

Context: Recently Tamil Nadu Assembly re-adopts Bill against online gambling.

About Online Gambling:

• Gambling is a state subject, and only states in India are entitled to formulate laws for gambling activities within their respective states.
• The constitution of India defines gambling.
  • It says that gambling includes any activity or undertaking whose determination is controlled or influenced by chance or accident or any activity or undertaking which is entered into or undertaken with consciousness of the risk of winning or losing (e.g., prize competitions, a wagering contract).
• It does suggest that anything where you can risk money to win money could be considered gambling.

Major Types:

• Casino games: These include slots, blackjack, roulette, and baccarat, among others.
• Sports betting: This involves placing bets on sports events, such as football, basketball, cricket, and horse racing.
• Poker: This is a card game played against other players online.
• Lottery: This involves purchasing tickets for online lotteries that offer large cash prizes.

The market of online gambling in India

• The Indian gambling market is estimated to be worth $60 billion per year with half of that being estimated to illegal gambling.
• These skill-based games themselves could cross a billion dollars in value and are growing at around 30% annually.
• India is moving towards improved age and gender parity among online gamblers. The majority will continue to play on mobile devices in 2021.
• Casinos in Goa alone provide more than 100 crores rupees in tax revenue to the state, which only shows how states can benefit from a regulated and legalized gambling market.

Factors pushing up the online gambling market:

Need for such Rules in India

• Safeguarding the Users: The attempt is to regulate online gaming platforms as intermediaries and place due diligence requirements on them.
  • It will promote the online gaming sector and encourage innovation.
• Safety of Women: Around 40 to 45 percent of the gamers in India are women, and therefore it was all the more important to keep the gaming ecosystem safe.
• Revenue generating, so need to be regulated: The revenue of the Indian mobile gaming industry is expected to exceed $1.5 billion in 2022 and is estimated to reach $5 billion in 2025.
  • The industry grew at a CAGR (compound annual growth rate) of 38 percent in India between 2017-2020, as opposed to 8 percent in China and 10 percent in the US.
• Transparency & Credibility: This framework will boost the legitimate domestic online gaming industry, ensuring greater transparency, consumer protection and investor confidence.
• Encouraging Startups: Online gaming is a very important piece of the start-up ecosystem and a part of the goal of the 1-trillion dollar economy.

Challenges of Online gambling:

• Lack of Regulation: Online gambling is often unregulated, making it easy for fraudulent activities to take place. This can lead to players losing their money or their personal information being compromised.
• Addiction: Online gambling can lead to addiction causing severe financial and social problems as it is easily accessible, and players can spend hours playing games without realizing the amount of time and money they are spending.
• Money Laundering: Online gambling can be used as a means for money laundering, where players can deposit large amounts of cash into online accounts and then withdraw the money in a legitimate form.
• Underage Gambling: Online gambling sites can be easily accessed by minors, leading to underage gambling. This can cause severe psychological and financial problems for children and their families.
• Cybersecurity Risks: Online gambling sites can be vulnerable to cyber-attacks, which can lead to the theft of sensitive personal and financial information of the players.
• Social Isolation: Online gambling can lead to social isolation, as players can spend hours playing games online, leading to a lack of social interaction with family and friends.

Laws governing Online Gambling:

• The laws governing online gambling in India are complex and vary by state however, there are some overarching laws that apply to the entire country:
• Public Gambling Act, 1867: It is a federal law that prohibits operating or visiting a gambling house. However, this law does not specifically mention online gambling.
• Information Technology Act, 2011: It was amended to include provisions related to online gambling which states that any website that offers online gambling services must be located outside of India.
• Many states in India have their own laws related to gambling with some states, such as Goa and Sikkim, having legalized certain forms of gambling and issue licenses to operators.

Major Court Judgements:

• Shri Krishna Agrawal vs. State of Maharashtra (1999): The Bombay High Court ruled that the game of poker involves a substantial degree of skill and is therefore not considered gambling.
• Varun Gumber v. Union Territory of Chandigarh (2017): The Punjab and Haryana High Court declared that online fantasy sports games, such as Dream11, involve a substantial degree of skill and are not considered gambling.
• Mahalakshmi Cultural Association v. State of Tamil Nadu (2013): The Madras High Court held that online games of chance, such as poker and rummy, are considered gambling and are therefore illegal.

Way Forward:

It is a fact that no clear regulation is in place for online gambling in India which is giving boost to illegal as well as unnecessary online gambling market. We also know that the negative effect outweighs the positive factors.

Overall, online gambling poses significant challenges that need to be addressed by regulators and policymakers to ensure that players are protected and that online gambling is conducted in a fair and responsible manner.

Source:  The Hindu

Syllabus

• Mains – GS 2 (Governance)

Context: Recently, the Chief Justice of India stated that ‘Press must remain free if a country is to remain a democracy’.

About Freedom of Press:

The constitutional bearing of the Freedom of Press:

• Freedom of Expression:
  • Article 19 (a) of the Indian constitution guarantees to every citizen of India the Freedom of speech and expression.
  • It is a fundamental Right of the Indian Constitution.
• Restriction on freedom:
  • However this Freedom under Article 19 is also not absolute. It faces certain restrictions under Article 19(2), which are as follows:
  • Matters related to in interests of the sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of the State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality or in relation to contempt of court, defamation or incitement to an offence.
• Freedom of press:
  • It is an absence of statutory and administrative control on dissemination of information, ideas, knowledge and thoughts.
  • Freedom of press is not specifically mentioned in article 19(1) (a) of the Constitution and what is mentioned there is only freedom of speech and expression.
  • In the Constituent Assembly Debates it was made clear by Ambedkar, Chairman of the Drafting Committee, that no special mention of the freedom of press was necessary at all as the press and an individual or a citizen were the same as far as their right of expression was concerned.

Significance of Media

• Media refers to all means of Communication, everything ranging from a Phone Call to the news on TV.
  • TV, radio and newspapers are a form of media. Since they reach millions of people across the world, they are Called Mass Media.
• A balanced report is essential in media which has to report independently.
• Media plays a very important role in providing news and discussing events taking place in the Country and the world.
  • News Stories in the media inform people about important events in the Country.
• Media by focusing on particular issues influences and Shapes our thoughts. It is said the media sets the agenda for People.
  • Opinions, attitudes, and Conduct of persons are dependent upon the information available to them.
  • Most of our knowledge of Contemporary events comes to us from newspapers, Radio, Television and movies.
  • Our emotions and attitudes are also formed or influenced to a large extent by the media.
• The media tell us about the working of the Government and create awareness about the welfare programmes.
• The relevance of the media was best highlighted during the period of the Covid-19 pandemic.
  • Electronic, print and social media facilitated the State to disseminate relevant information to the general public at large even during the lockdown.
• Fourth Pillar of Democracy: Due to these attributes, the Media can be rightly considered as the fourth pillar of democracy, the other three being legislature, executive and judiciary.

Press Freedom Index & India’s performance:

• In the 2022 edition of the Press Freedom Index which is published by Reporters Without Borders, India ranked at the 150th position, eight positions lower than last year.

Concern/ Challenges

• The media is far from being independent because of the Control of Government over the media Called Censoring and because big business houses Control the media.
• Corporate Funding – A lot of money is spent on maintaining People and getting the latest technology.
  • Media, therefore, uses advertising as a tool to raise revenue.
• Manipulating News for TRPs is not only a financial scam but also morally and ethically wrong.
  • Some Channels are spreading a hate narrative which is a violation of the fundamental right of the citizen to know the truth through the media.
• The media has become a source of disinformation, and this is also an ethical issue.
  • Both legal and ethical dimensions are equally serious.

Way Forward:

The democratic way of life depends upon the existence of free agencies of mass media. The Media must act in a Responsible and Independence manner; they need to promote Sincerity, Truthfulness, Accuracy, and Impartiality in their work. Freedom of the press is crucial to the functioning of a vibrant democracy hence the government should ensure its well-being.

Source:  Indian Express  

Q.1) He was a famous Indian revolutionary who played a major role in the India’s struggle for Independence. He  was a member of the Hindustan Socialist Republican Association (HSRA). He was involved in the assassination of Deputy Superintendent of Police, J.P. Saunders in 1928, to avenge the death of veteran leader, Lala Lajpat Rai, owing to excessive police beating in the Conspiracy case. He along with other renowned revolutionaries started the ‘Naujawan Bharat Sabha’ at Lahore.

Who among the following freedom fighters described in the above passage?

1. Chandra Shekhar Azad
2. Khudiram Bose
3. Sukhdev
4. Ashfaqulla Khan

Q.2) With reference to India, Which of the following is not a constitutional provisions for the disqualification of a member of the Parliament?

1. If he holds any office of profit under the Union or state government (except that of a minister or any other office exempted by Parliament).
2. A person will be disqualified if convicted and sentenced to imprisonment for two years or more.
3. If he is not a citizen of India or has voluntarily acquired the citizenship of a foreign state or is under any acknowledgement of allegiance to a foreign state
4. If he is of unsound mind and stands so declared by a court.

Q.3) consider the following statements regarding Western Disturbances:

1. These planetary winds that flow from east to west between 30°-60° latitude.
2. They originate in the Bay of Bengal region
3. They usually bring mild rain during January-February, which is beneficial to the rabi crop.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 3 only

Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!!

ANSWERS FOR ’ 25th March 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st

Q.1) – c

Q.2) – b

Q.3) – a