DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 11th December 2023

Syllabus

• Prelims –POLITY

Context: Recently, Union Home Minister Amit Shah chaired the 26th Eastern Zonal Council Meeting in Patna.

Background:-

• Addressing the representatives of Bihar, Jharkhand, West Bengal and Odisha Mr. Shah appealed to all members to work with the spirit of cooperative federalism for all-round development.

About Zonal Council:-

• Zonal Councils are the statutory (and not the constitutional) bodies.
• They are established by an Act of Parliament, that is, the States Reorganization Act of 1956.

Historical Background:-

• The idea of the creation of Zonal Councils was mooted by the first Prime Minister of India, Pandit Jawahar Lal Nehru in 1956.
• Five Zonal Councils were set up vide Part-III of the States Re-organisation Act, 1956 – north, south, east, west and central.
• The North Eastern Statese. (i) Assam (ii) Arunachal Pradesh (iii) Manipur (iv) Tripura (v) Mizoram (vi) Meghalaya and (vii) Nagaland are not included in the Zonal Councils
• Their special problems are looked after by the North Eastern Council, set up under the North Eastern Council Act, of 1972.
• The State of Sikkim has also been included in the North Eastern Council vide the North Eastern Council (Amendment) Act, 2002.

Objectives:-

• Zonal Councils aim to promote collaboration and coordination among states, UTs, and the Union.
• They discuss and give recommendations on several topics.
• They are only consultative and deliberative bodies.
• The States Reorganization Act of 1956 established these statutory entities. The country was divided into 5 zones by the Act:-
• Northern Zonal Council: It comprises the States of Haryana, Himachal Pradesh, Jammu & Kashmir, Punjab, Rajasthan, the National Capital Territory of Delhi, Union Territory of Chandigarh and Ladakh.
  • Headquarter: New Delhi
• Central Zonal Council: It comprises the States of Chhattisgarh, Uttarakhand, Uttar Pradesh and Madhya Pradesh.
• Headquarter: Allahabad
• Eastern Zonal Council: It comprises the States of Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, Sikkim and West Bengal.
• Headquarter: Kolkata
• Western Zonal Council: It comprises the States of Goa, Gujarat, and Maharashtra and the Union Territories of Daman & Diu and Dadra & Nagar Haveli.
• Headquarter: Mumbai
• Southern Zonal Council: It comprises the States of Andhra Pradesh, Karnataka, Kerala, Tamil Nadu and the Union Territory of Puducherry.
• Headquarter: Chennai

Structure:-

• Chairman – The Union Home Minister is the Chairman of each of these Councils.
• Vice Chairman – The Chief Ministers of the States included in each zone act as Vice-Chairman of the Zonal Council for that zone by rotation, each holding office for a period of one year at a time.
• Members- Chief Minister and two other Ministers as nominated by the Governor from each of the States and two members from Union Territories included in the zone.

Functions:-

• Each Zonal Council is an advisory body and may discuss any matter in which States have a common interest and advise the Government.
• In particular, a Zonal Council may discuss, and make recommendations with regard to:
  • any matter of common interest in the field of economic and social planning;
  • any matter concerning border disputes, linguistic minorities or inter-State transport;
  • any matter connected with or arising out of, the re-organization of the States under the State’s Reorganization Act.

MUST READ: Integration of North-Eastern India and its Significance

SOURCE: AIR

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) In which one of the following states is Pakhui Wildlife Sanctuary located? (2018)

1. Arunachal Pradesh
2. Manipur
3. Meghalaya
4. Nagaland

Q.2) Which of the following bodies does not/do not find mention in the Constitution? (2013)

1. National Development Council
2. Planning Commission
3. Zonal Councils

Select the correct answer using the codes given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Syllabus

• Prelims –POLITY/INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

Context: Recently, Foreign Secretary Vinay Kwatra and, the UN Under-Secretary-General discussed India’s presidency of the Conference on Disarmament.

Background:-

• Their talks centred around global advancements in arms control and disarmament, with a focus on key initiatives discussed at the recent 78th UNGA First Committee.

About Conference on Disarmament (CD):-

• Established: 1979.
• HQ: Palais des Nations in Geneva.
• It is a multilateral disarmament forum established by the international community.
• Objective: to negotiate arms control and disarmament agreements.
• The Conference meets annually in three separate sessions in Geneva.
• Members: The Conference is comprised of 65 member States, including the five NPT nuclear-weapon States and 60 other States of key military significance.
• The CD has three sessions each year.
• The CD conducts its work by consensus.
• The Director-General of the United Nations Office at Geneva, is the Secretary-General of the Conference on Disarmament.
• The CD and its predecessors have negotiated major multilateral arms limitation and disarmament agreements such as:-
  • the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons (NPT),
  • the Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, Production and Stockpiling of Bacteriological (Biological) and
  • Toxin Weapons and on Their Destruction (BWC),
  • the Convention on the Prohibition of the Development, Production, Stockpiling and Use of Chemical Weapons and on Their Destruction (CWC)
  • Comprehensive Nuclear-Test-Ban Treaty (CTBT).

Historical Background:-

• The Conference on Disarmament (CD), was recognized by the Tenth Special Session on Disarmament of the United Nations General Assembly (SSOD-I) (1978) as a single multilateral disarmament negotiating forum of the international community.
• It succeeded other Geneva-based negotiating fora, which include the Ten-Nation Committee on Disarmament (1960), the Eighteen-Nation Committee on Disarmament (1962-68), and the Conference of the Committee on Disarmament (1969-78).
• It was renamed the Conference on Disarmament in 1984.

Functions:-

• Cessation of the nuclear arms race and nuclear disarmament.
• Prevention of nuclear war, including all related matters.
• Prevention of an arms race in outer space.
• Effective international arrangements to assure non-nuclear-weapon States against the use or threat of use of nuclear weapons.
• New types of weapons of mass destruction and new systems of such weapons; radiological weapons.
• Comprehensive programme of disarmament.
• Transparency in armaments. (India’s Nuclear Doctrine)

MUST READ: Fragile State of Nuclear Disarmament

SOURCE: AWAZ

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

1. Consider the following countries: (2015)

1. China
2. France
3. India
4. Israel
5. Pakistan

Which among the above are Nuclear Weapons States as recognized by the Treaty on the Non-Proliferation of Nuclear Weapons, commonly known as the Nuclear Non-Proliferaton Treaty (NPT)?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 1, 3, 4 and 5
3. 2, 4 and 5
4. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5

Q.2) Recently, India signed a deal known as ‘Action Plan for Prioritization and Implementation of Cooperation Areas in the Nuclear Field’ with which of the following countries? (2019)

1. Japan
2. Russia
3. The United Kingdom
4. The United States of America

Syllabus

• Prelims –ECONOMY

Context: Recently, Foreign portfolio investors (FPIs) injected ₹26,505 crore into the Indian equity markets in the first six trading sessions of December

Background:-

• Kislay Upadhyay, the founder of FidelFolio Investments, attributed the FPI inflows to the outcome of major State elections that signalled political stability going forward.

About Foreign Portfolio Investors (FPIs):-

• Foreign portfolio investors are those who invest funds in markets outside of their homes.
• Their investments typically include equities, bonds and mutual funds.
• It does not provide the investor with direct ownership of financial assets.
• It is relatively liquid depending on the volatility of the market.
• Examples of FPIs include stocks, bonds, mutual funds, exchange-traded funds, American Depositary Receipts (ADRs), and Global Depositary Receipts (GDRs).
• FPI is part of a country’s capital account and is shown on its Balance of Payments (BOP).

Advantages:-

• Investors can gain substantially from exchange rate differences.
• Helps companies raise significant capital without incurring massive expense.
• FPIs help investors diversify their portfolios, which, in turn, boosts their confidence.
• FPIs inevitably move towards larger markets with lower competition. This combination is rather attractive to any investor.

Disadvantages:-

• Economic turmoil and political instability may have a negative impact on any investment via the FPI route.
• Despite the fluid nature of FPIs, losses may pile up if funds are not withdrawn hastily.

 FPIs vs FDIs:-

• An FDI, by default, establishes a tangible and direct business interest in the target country. An FPI does not entail any such hands-on business It is a passive form of investing.
• Unlike FDIs, an FPI does not require any transfer of IP, technology, or know-how. There is no need to enter a joint venture with a partner company.
• FDI comprise significantly larger sums and any tie-ups or operations tend to last longer than portfolio investors.
• FDIs are usually the domain of major players in the industry, venture capital ecosystems, and investment branches of globally recognized financial institutions. Most FPIs include smaller players who invest in a foreign country’s assets and securities for short-term profit.

MUST READ: FPI and InvITs

SOURCE: THE HINDU

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1)  With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements. (2022)

1. An increase in Nominal Effective Exchange Rate (NEER) indicates the appreciation of the rupee.
2. An increase in the Real Effective Exchange Rate (REER) indicates an improvement in trade competitiveness.
3. An increasing trend in domestic inflation relative to inflation in other countries is likely to cause an increasing divergence between NEER and REER.

Which of the above statements is correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2)With reference to Foreign Direct Investment in India, which one of the following is considered its major characteristic? (2020)

1. It is the investment through capital instruments essentially in a listed company.
2. It is a largely non-debt-creating capital flow.
3. It is the investment which involves debt-servicing.
4. It is the investment made by foreign institutional investors in Government securities

Syllabus

• Prelims –ART AND CULTURE

Context: Kadalekayi Parishe started recently.

Background:-

• Efforts are being made to keep the festival plastic-free.

About Kadalekayi Parishe:-

• Kadalekai parishe is ground nut fair held at heart of Bengaluru near basavana gudi.
• It is offering of first crop to dodda basava or nandi whose temple is atop the bugle rock.
• Farmers from various districts of Karnataka comes down to the festival to offer the first ground nut crop followed by fair which is spread across close to a kilometer.
• Kadalekayi Parishe welcomes the first yield of the groundnut crop
• It is popularly known as the groundnut festival.
• It is held on the last Monday of Karthika Masa each year. (Hornbill Festival)
• As the festival follows the Hindu calendar, its exact date as per the English calendar doesn’t stay fixed.
• Kadale kai parishe in Basavanagudi of Bengaluru is between 9th December 2023 to 11th December 2023.
• The prime event is held on 11th December 2023.
• Karnataka’s farmers congregate at the Bull Temple each year to seek blessings for a good harvest.
• During Kadalekai Parishe, visitors buy groundnuts in bulk directly from farmers at prices cheaper than market rates.
• During Kadalekai Parishe special pooja and prayers are held at the bull temple.
• Decorated streets will have lots of shopping options, food outlets, games and toys for kids. Locals look forward to the festival and indulge in celebrations as well as shopping.

MUST READ: Sari Festival “VIRAASAT

SOURCE: HINDUSTAN TIMES

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements (2022)

1. 21st February is declared to be International Mother Language Day by UNICEF.
2. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2)With reference to India, the terms ‘Halbi, Ho and Kui’ pertain to (2022)

1. dance forms of Northwest India
2. musical instruments
3. pre-historic cave paintings
4. tribal languages

Syllabus

• Prelims –DEFENSE

Context: The Indian Armed Forces contingent reached Hanoi, Vietnam to take part in the fourth edition of Joint Military Exercise VINBAX-2023 recently.

Background:-

• The Indian contingent comprises 39 personnel from an Engineer Regiment of Bengal Engineer Group and six personnel of Army Medical Corps.
• The Vietnam People’s Army contingent will also be represented by 45 personnel.

About VINBAX-2023:-

• Date: from 11th to 21st December 2023.
• Venue: Hanoi, Vietnam.
• Exercise VINBAX was instituted in 2018.
• The first edition was conducted at Jabalpur, Madhya Pradesh.
• It is an annual training event conducted alternatively in India and Vietnam. (Military Exercises)
• The last edition was conducted at Chandimandir Military Station in August 2022
• Objective: to foster collaborative partnership, promote interoperability and share best practices between the two sides under Chapter VII of the United Nations Charter on Peacekeeping Operations.
• The joint exercise will encourage the exchange of ideas and both contingents will jointly rehearse tactics, techniques and procedures.
• Ideas will be exchanged on modern methods to construct roads, culverts, helipads, ammunition shelters and observation posts in operational areas.
• In addition, rehearsals will be carried out for drills related to combat engineering and combat medical tasks.
• Both sides will conduct technical military operations in accordance with scenarios akin to the worldwide deployment of United Nations’ contingents.
• The joint exercise will help in promoting understanding and interoperability between the two contingents and further strengthen the defence cooperation between the friendly armies.

MUST READ: India and Vietnam relations

SOURCE: PIB

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following pairs :

Port                                                           Well known as

1. Kamaraj Port:                              First major port in India registered as a company ·
2. Mundra Port:                              Largest privately owned port in India
3. Visakhapatnam:                         Largest container port in Port India

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. All three pairs
4. None of the pairs

Q.2) Which one of the following is the best description of ‘INS Astradharini’, that was in the news recently? (2016)

1. Amphibious warfare ship
2. Nuclear-powered submarine
3. Torpedo launch and recovery vessel
4. Nuclear-powered aircraft carrier

Syllabus

• Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

Context: According to the UK Health Security Agency, 716 cases of pertussis were reported between July and November, three times more than the same period in 2022.

Background:-

• Following reports, Dr Gayatri Amirthalingam, the agency’s Deputy Director of Public Health Programmes, said that the number of infections dropped during the COVID-19 epidemic due to social distancing and lockdown regulations but is currently on the rise.

About Pertussis:-

• Pertussis, famously known as whooping cough, is a highly contagious respiratory infection caused by the bacteria Bordetella pertussis.
• Prolonged coughing causes air to be expelled from your lungs. When you gasp for air quickly and deeply after a coughing fit, a whooping cough sound might accompany the inhalation of air. This sound is a loud, high-pitched “whooping” noise. That’s where pertussis gets its name.
• It only humans are affected by the disease.
• Pertussis spreads easily from person to person mainly through droplets produced by coughing or sneezing.
• The disease is most dangerous in infants, and is a significant cause of disease and death in this age group.

Symptoms:-

• The first symptoms generally appear 7 to 10 days after infection.
• Early pertussis symptoms may resemble those of the common cold. These symptoms may persist for one to two weeks and may include:-
  • Slight fever.
  • Mild or occasional coughing.
  • Runny nose.
  • A pause in breathing in babies (apnea).
• Whooping cough symptoms after the first or second week have passed usually include:
  • Prolonged, repeated or violent coughing episodes (paroxysms) that recur intermittently for up to 10 weeks or more.
  • Whooping sound when inhaling after the coughing stops.
  • Vomitting.
  • Exhaustion due to prolonged coughing.

Treatment:-

• Whooping cough treatment should begin as soon as possible after diagnosis. (Disease Surveillance System)
• A provider will prescribe antibiotics to help prevent the spread of the disease. But antibiotics can’t prevent or treat your cough.
• Cough syrups and other medicines can’t relieve your coughing spells, so you’ll need to use other forms of home treatment to manage your symptoms.
• In the 1950s, a vaccine was developed that significantly reduced its impact.
• Getting the whooping cough vaccine is the best way to prevent it getting whooping cough.

MUST READ: Non communicable and communicable diseases

SOURCE: FREE PRESS JOURNAL

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (2022)

1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.
2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut.
3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 2 and 3

Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022)

1. They protect the environmental allergens. body
2. They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation.
3. They act as immunosuppressants in the body.
4. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.

Q1) Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Q2) Consider the following statements

Statement-I :

Zonal Councils are constitutional bodies.

Statement-II :

Eastern Zonal Council: It comprises the States of Bihar, Jharkhand, Orissa, Sikkim and West Bengal.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q3) With reference to the VINBAX-2023, consider the following statements:

1. Exercise VINBAX was instituted in 2014.
2. The first edition was conducted in Vietnam.
3. It is an annual training event conducted alternatively in India and Vietnam.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 3 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 2 only

Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!!

ANSWERS FOR ’  11th December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st

Q.1) – a

Q.2) – d

Q.3) – c