Syllabus

• Prelims – History

Context: The Supreme Court refused to stop the Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) survey at the Gyanvapi complex amid the dispute.

Background:-

• The Court disposed of a petition filed by Anjuman Intezamia Masjid Committee challenging Allahabad High court, which permitted the ASI to undertake the survey.

About Gyanvapi Mosque Dispute:-

Historical Background:-

• It is a popular belief that the Gyanvapi Mosque was built in 1669 by the Mughal ruler Aurangzeb by demolishing the ancient Vishweshwar temple.
• Saqib Khan’s book ‘Yasir Alamgiri’, mentions that Aurangzeb had demolished the temple in 1669 by ordering Governor Abul Hassan.

Judicial Intervention:-

• The case of Gyanvapi mosque has been in court since 1991, when three persons, including Pandit Somnath Vyas, a descendant of the priests of the Kashi Vishwanath temple, filed a suit in the court of the civil judge of Varanasi claiming that Aurangzeb had demolished the temple of Lord Vishweshwar and built a mosque on it so that the land should be returned to them. ( Khajuraho temples)
• In 2021, in the same court in Varanasi, five women filed a petition demanding to worship in the temple of Mother Gauri, accepting which the court constituted a commission to know the present status of the Makeup Gauri Temple.
• In this context, the court asked the commission to give the survey report by video graphing the idol of Makeup Gauri and the Gyanvapi complex.
• This created an uproar, as questions were raised on the impartiality of the court commissioner appointed by the Muslim side for the survey.

Hindu Side arguments:-

• Vijay Shankar Rastogi, appearing for the Hindu side, submitted a map of the entire Gyanvapi complex as evidence in the court, which mentions the temples of Hindu deities around after the entrance of the mosque, as well as the Vishweshwar temple, Gyankoop, the big Nandi and the basement of the Vyas family.
  • There has been a controversy over the survey and videography of this basement.

Muslim Side arguments:-

• The Muslim side says that no decision can be given on the dispute under the Religious Places Act of 1991.
• Under Section 3 of the Places of Worship (Special Provisions) Act, 1991, it is prohibited to convert a place of worship, even its clause, into a place of worship of a different religious denomination or a different class of the same religious denomination.
• Section 4(2) of the Act states that all litigations, appeals, or other proceedings relating to changing the nature of the place of worship (which were pending till August 15, 1947) shall cease after the enactment of this Act and no fresh action can be taken on such cases.
• However, if the change in the nature of the place of worship has occurred after the cut-off date of August 15, 1947 (after the act came into force ), legal action can be initiated in that case.
  • For example The disputed site of Ayodhya (Ram Janmabhoomi-Babri Masjid) was exempted from the Act.

About Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) :-

• Established in 1861.
• Established by: Alexander Cunningham.
• Ministry: Union Ministry of Culture.
• HQ: New Delhi. ( ASI)
• The ASI is the premier organization for the archaeological research and protection of the cultural heritage of the country.

Functions of ASI:-

• It maintains the archaeological sites, ancient monuments, and remains of national importance.
• It regulates all archaeological activities as per the provisions of the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act, of 1958.
• It also regulates the Antiquities and Art Treasure Act, of 1972.

MUST READ: ASI planning barricade around famed stone chariot at Hampi

SOURCE: AIR

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) With reference to ancient Indian History, consider the following pairs: (2023)

Literary work                                             Author

1. Deuichandragupta :                     Bilhana
2. Hammira-Mahakauya :         Nayachandra Suri
3. Milinda-panha :                         Nagatjuna
4. Nitiuakyamrita:                       Somadeva Suri

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Q.2) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022)

1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines.
2. A description of Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni.
3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1,2 and 3

Syllabus

• Prelims – Government initiatives

Context: The National Health Authority (NHA) announced the extension of its Digital Health Incentives Scheme (DHIS) till the 31st of December 2023.

About Digital Health Incentives Scheme (DHIS):-

• Launched: December 2022.
  • DHIS is effective from 1st January 2023.
• Implementing Agency: National Health Authority (NHA).
• Ministry: Ministry of Health and Family Welfare.
• Objectives: to give a further boost to digital health transactions in the country under the Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM).
  • Ayushman Bharat Digital Mission (ABDM):-
  • It was launched in 2021. ( Ayushman Bharat Health Infrastructure Mission)
  • It aims to provide digital health IDs for all Indian citizens to help hospitals, insurance firms, and citizens access health records electronically when required.

Salient Features of DHIS:-

• The scheme offers incentives of up to four crore rupees based on the number of digital health records created and linked to the Ayushman Bharat Health Account numbers of the patients.
• Under the scheme, incentives are provided to hospitals and diagnostic labs and to the providers of digital health solutions such as Hospital/ Health Management Information Systems (HMIS) and Laboratory Management Information Systems (LMIS).
• This incentive can be availed by the health facilities (hospitals and diagnostic labs) registered with ABDM’s Health Facility Registry (HFR) and fulfilling the eligibility criterion specified under the scheme.
• Conditions for availing incentives: Incentives would be provided to the following entities:-

Benefits of DHIS:-

• Earn incentives for Digitization: Reimburse the expenses incurred for digitization to all the participating healthcare facilities, Digital Solution Companies.
• Efficiency in Healthcare Delivery: Removes hassles in the healthcare process (registration, appointment, consultation, IPD admission, discharge, etc.).
• Building a Robust Digital Health Ecosystem: Building a robust digital health ecosystem across different levels of healthcare facilities.
• Improved Quality of Care: Evidence-based, accessible, and good quality care.

MUST READ: Ayushman Bharat-Healthcare Scheme

SOURCE: AIR

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy: (2023)

1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents, and pregnant women.
2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth.
3. It provides for periodic deworming. to children and adolescents.
4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies, and fluorosis.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023)

Statement-I:

India’s public sector health care system largely focuses on curative care with limited preventive, promotive, and rehabilitative care.

Statement-II:

Under India’s decentralized approach to health care delivery, the States are primarily responsible for organizing health services.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Syllabus

• Prelims –Economy

Context: Recently, the Union Finance Minister Nirmala Sitharaman chaired a meeting with Chairpersons and senior officials of Regional Rural Banks (RRBs) from the Southern Region.

Background:-

• The discussions centered on the financial performance of RRBs.
• The Union Finance Minister emphasized the need for timely implementation of technology, Loan Management System, and Core Banking System in the RRBs of the Southern Region.

About Regional Rural Banks (RRBs):-

• Established: 1975.
  • They were set up based on recommendations of the Narasimhan Working Group.
• They were set up as government-sponsored, regional-based rural lending institutions under the Regional Rural Banks Act, of 1976.

Objectives of RRBs:-

• They have been created with a view to serve primarily rural areas of India with basic banking and financial services.
• They fulfill credit needs of relatively unserved sections in rural areas-small and marginal farmers, agricultural laborers, socio-economically weaker sections, and small entrepreneurs in rural areas for the development of agriculture, trade, commerce, industry, and other productive activities.
• RRBs can also set branches set up for urban operations and their area of operation may include semi-urban or urban areas too.

Ownership of RRBs:-

• RRBs are jointly owned by Central Government, concerned State Government, and Sponsor Banks with the issued capital shared in the proportion of 50%, 15%, and 35%

Priority Sector Lending-

• The RRBs are required to provide 75% of their total credit as priority sector lending (PSL).

Functions of RRBs:-

• To provide safety to the savings of customers. 
• To create credit and increase the supply of money .
• To encourage public confidence in the financial system.
•  To mobilize the savings of the public .
• To increase its network to reach every segment of society .
• To provide financial services to all customers irrespective of their level of income. (RBI issues revised PCA framework for banks)

 Significance of RRBs:-

• They are financial institutions that ensure adequate credit for agriculture and other rural sectors.
• They combine the characteristics of a cooperative in terms of familiarity with rural problems and a commercial bank in terms of its professionalism and ability to mobilize financial resources. (Digital Banks)

MUST READ: Privatization of Banks

SOURCE: AIR

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the investments in the following assets: (2023)

1. Brand recognition
2. Inventory
3. Intellectual property
4. Mailing list of clients

How many of the above are considered intangible investments?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Q.2) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022)

1. If the inflation is too high, the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Syllabus

• Prelims –Geography

Context: The Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change told the Rajya Sabha that an estimated 964,000 trees would be felled for the Great Nicobar Island Project.

About Great Nicobar Island Project:-

• Ministry: Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change (MoEFCC).
• Implementing agency: Andaman and Nicobar Islands Integrated Development Corporation (ANIIDCO).
• It is a ₹72,000-crore mega project piloted by NITI Aayog. (NITI Aayog’s Project for Great Nicobar Island)
• Objective: holistic development of the Great Nicobar Island (GNI).
• The project aims to transform the Great Nicobar Island, in the Bay of Bengal, into a modern, sustainable, and self-sufficient territory. (Development of Great Nicobar)

Components of the plan:-

The plan has four components:-

• A ₹35,000 crore transshipment port at Galathea Bay
• A dual-use military-civil international airport
• A power plant, and
• A township

Benefits of the Projects:-

Economic Benefits:-

• The proposed port will allow Great Nicobar to participate in the regional and global maritime economy by becoming a major player in cargo transshipment.
• Great Nicobar is equidistant from Colombo to the southwest and Port Klang and Singapore to the southeast, and positioned close to the East-West international shipping corridor, through which a very large part of the world’s shipping trade passes.
• It can potentially become a hub for cargo ships traveling on this route.

Strategic Benefits:-

• Increasing Chinese assertion in the Indian Ocean has added great urgency to this imperative in recent years.
• Great Nicobar is equidistant from Colombo to the southwest and Port Klang and Singapore to the southeast, and positioned close to the East-West international shipping corridor, through which a very large part of the world’s shipping trade passes.

Feasibility Issues:-

• Hinterland Economic Activities: A successful transshipment hub requires viable hinterland economic activities, which may be wishful thinking in Great Nicobar.
• Afforestation and Coral Reef Translocation: The far-field afforestation recommendation and coral reef translocation are questionable compensation methods.
• Tectonic Instability: Great Nicobar Island’s proximity to the Ring of Fire and its history of earthquakes raise concerns about the feasibility of developing an urban port city.

About Great Nicobar:-

• Great Nicobar is the southernmost island of the Nicobar Islands
• The Great Nicobar Biosphere Reserve harbors a wide spectrum of ecosystems comprising tropical wet evergreen forests, mountain ranges reaching a height of 642 m (Mt. Thullier) above sea level, and coastal plains.
• It is situated in the Bay of Bengal.
• It is the largest island in the Nicobar group of islands.

MUST READ: Katchal island

SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements: Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’ (2023)

1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
2. hunting is not allowed in such area
3. people in such areas are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
4. people of such areas are allowed traditional agricultural practices

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Q.2) Which one of the following pairs of islands is separated from each other by the ‘Ten Degree Channel’? (2014)

1. Andaman and Nicobar
2. Nicobar and Sumatra
3. Maldives and Lakshadweep
4. Sumatra and Java

Syllabus

• Prelims –Environment and Ecology

Context: According to a new study, the new sorghum varieties developed by scientists can help meet the nutritional needs of mothers and children in sub-Saharan Africa.

Background:-

• The scientists developed advanced lines of sorghum by integrating multiple traits into a single plant.
• Naturally, it lacks sufficient vitamin A precursors and key minerals such as iron and zinc, like many other cereal grains.
• However, the new varieties are enhanced with both provitamin A and non-provitamin A carotenoids.
• These varieties also contain a more efficient phytase enzyme, a protein that breaks down phytic acid.
  • This improves the absorption of nutrients from the diet
• This new variety can produce 32 times more provitamin a carotenoids than regular sorghum varieties.
• These sorghum lines also contain high concentrations of lutein and zeaxanthin, carotenoids that are important for eye health and brain development.
• The new varieties are the product of 20 years of collaborations from scientists with the USDA, the Arkansas Children’s Nutrition Center, North Carolina State University’s Plants for Human Health Institute, and CortevaAgriscience.

About Sorghum:-

IMAGE SOURCE:organifacts.net

• It can withstand high temperatures and drought conditions.
• It is a rainfed crop mostly grown in moist areas, which hardly needs irrigation.
• It is produced in semi-arid zones in drought-prone and marginal locations where other crops fail to thrive and concerns about malnutrition are prominent.
• Rainfall: moderate rainfall of 30-100 cm.
• Temperatures: high temperatures ranging from 20 to 32°C.
• Vulnerability: Both excessive moisture and prolonged drought are harmful.
• Soil: Well-drained light soils are ideal. ( Significance of Millet Farming)
• It is cultivated as the major food crop in semi-arid areas of central and south India.
• Highest producers: Maharashtra, Karnataka, Andhra Pradesh, and Madhya Pradesh.
• India is the largest producer of jowar in the world.

Health Benefits Of Sorghum:-

• It is high in protein, fiber, vitamin B, and some micronutrients.
• The larger grains make it more digestible for both people and animals and improve processing efficiency.
• The quality of the yield can be improved without many alterations to environmental resources.
• It has a low glycemic index and is gluten-free, and nutritious.
• It controls Blood Sugar Levels.
• It is full of ( International Year of Millets – 2023)
• It is good for Bone Health because it contains high magnesium levels.
• It helps maintain calcium levels in the body as magnesium increases calcium absorption.
• It contains B vitamins, which help the body build new tissues and cells, and potassium and phosphorus.
• It contains traces of zinc, copper, and over 20 micronutrients and high levels of antioxidants.
• The high dietary fiber content in Jowar also helps improve digestion.
• The abundance of fiber in jowar helps lower LDL (or bad cholesterol) levels in the body, thus reducing the risk of a heart attack.

MUST READ: The Millet mission

SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following trees: (2023)

1. Jackfruit (Artoca7pus heterophyllus)
2. Mahua (Madhuca indica)
3. Teak (Tectona grandis)

How many of the above are deciduous trees?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Q.2) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2023)

1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
4. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow.

Which of the statements given above is correct? (2022)

1. 1 and 3
2. 2 and 4
3. 3 and 4
4. 1 and 4

Syllabus

• Prelims –Science and Technology

Context: Recently, the National Aeronautics and Space Administration an independent agency (NASA) detected a signal from its Voyager 2 spacecraft.

Background:-

• NASA detected a “heartbeat” signal from the spacecraft on August 1, 2023.

About Voyager 2 spacecraft:-

• Launch Date: Aug. 20, 1977.
• Launch Vehicle: Titan IIIE-Centaur (TC-7 / Titan no. 23E-7 / Centaur D-1T)​.
• Launch Site: Cape Canaveral, Fla. / Launch Complex
• Spacecraft Mass: 1,592 pounds (721.9 kilograms)
• Mission Design and Management: NASA / JPL.
• It is part of the Voyager program, which also includes Voyager 1.
• Objective: To study the outer planets of our solar system and their moons, and then continue on an interstellar mission.
• It is the second spacecraft to enter interstellar space.
  • On Dec. 10, 2018, the spacecraft joined its twin; Voyager 1 was the only human-made object to enter space between the stars.
• It carries a Golden Record, a phonograph record containing sounds and images from Earth.
  • It is intended to be a message to any potential extraterrestrial civilizations it might encounter in the future.

Scientific Instruments:-

• Imaging Science System (ISS)
• Ultraviolet Spectrometer (UVS)
• Infrared Interferometer Spectrometer (IRIS)(Chandrayaan-2 makes first observations)
• Planetary Radio Astronomy Experiment (PRA)
• Photopolarimeter (PPS)
• Triaxial Fluxgate Magnetometer (MAG)
• Plasma Spectrometer (PLS)
• Low-Energy Charged Particles Experiment (LECP)
• Plasma Waves Experiment (PWS)
• Cosmic Ray Telescope (CRS)
• Radio Science System (RSS)

Key Timeline:-

• 1979: Jupiter flyby (Findings of Chandrayaan-2)
• 1981: Saturn flyby
• 1986: Uranus flyby
• 1989: Neptune flyby
• 2018: Entered interstellar space
• 2019: Voyager 2 successfully fired its trajectory correction maneuver thrusters.

MUST READ: Chandrayaan-3

SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) With reference to the Earth’s atmosphere, which one of the following statements is correct? (2023)

1. The total amount of insolation received at the equator is roughly about 10 times that received at the poles.
2. Infrared rays constitute roughly two-thirds of insolation.
3. Infrared waves are largely absorbed by water vapor that is concentrated in the lower atmosphere.
4. Infrared waves are a part of the visible spectrum of electromagnetic waves of solar radiation.

Q.2) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023)

1. Australia
2. Canada
3. Israel
4. Japan

Syllabus

• Mains – GS 2 (Governance)

Context: The Centre recently tabled the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill, 2023.

Key Features of Digital Personal Data Protection Bill, 2023

• Applicability: The Bill will apply to the processing of digital personal data within India.
  • It will also apply to the processing of personal data outside India, if it is for offering goods or services or profiling individuals in India.
• Consent: Personal data may be processed only for a lawful purpose for which an individual has given consent.
  • A notice must be given before seeking consent.
  • Notice should contain details about the personal data to be collected and the purpose of processing. Consent may be withdrawn at any point in time.
  • For individuals below 18 years of age, consent will be provided by the legal guardian.
• Rights and Duties of Data Principal: An individual, whose data is being processed (data principal), will have the right to
  • obtain information about processing,
  • seek correction and erasure of personal data,
• nominate another person to exercise rights in the event of death or incapacity
• Transfer of Personal Data outside India: The central government will notify countries where a data fiduciary may transfer personal data.
  • Transfers will be subject to prescribed terms and conditions.
• Exemptions: Rights of the data principal and obligations of data fiduciaries (except data security) will not apply in specified cases. These include
  • prevention and investigation of offences, and
  • Enforcement of legal rights or claims.
  • The central government may, by notification, exempt certain activities from the application of the Bill. These include
  • processing by government entities in the interest of the security of the state and public order, and
  • Research, archiving, or statistical purposes.
• Data Protection Board of India: The central government will establish the Data Protection Board of India.
• Key functions of the Board include
  • monitoring compliance and imposing penalties,
  • directing data fiduciaries to take necessary measures in the event of a data breach, and
  • Hearing grievances made by affected persons.
• Penalties: The schedule to the Bill specifies penalties for various offences such as up to
  • Rs 200 crore for non-fulfilment of obligations for children, and
  • Rs 250 crore for failure to take security measures to prevent data breaches.

Significance of the Bill:

• Strong safeguards: Fines for data misuse prescribed in the previous version of the Bill were not seen as an effective deterrent.
• The higher penalties being proposed now will prompt entities to build strong safeguards to protect data and enforce fiduciary discipline.
• Companies would face punitive actions in the nature of financial penalties in the event of misuse of data and data breaches.
• The upcoming data protection Bill will put an end to misuse of customer data with companies facing financial consequences.
• There will also be a strict or purpose limitation of data collected by companies and the time till which they can store it under the new Bill.
• Data fiduciaries will be required to stop retaining personal data and delete previously collected data after the initial purpose for which it was collected was fulfilled.

Criticisms:

• Weak regulator: It will lead to a progressive weakening of the Data Protection Authority of India – the body that is supposed to be the key regulator and enforcer of the law.
• Autocratic appointments: The Centre was also empowered to appoint members to the data protection board, raising concerns over the control it could potentially exert on the institution in cases where it was an interested party.
• More like Chinese version: Provisions for the central government to bypass norms around seeking express consent from citizens and the right to exempt “any instrumentality of the state” from adverse consequences citing national security, relations with foreign governments, and maintenance of public order among other things, are where the Bill comes in closer to the Chinese version.

Comparing India’s Proposal with Global Models:

• Various countries worldwide have enacted legislation to secure data protection and privacy.
• The EU model, known for its stringent regulations, serves as a template for many nations.
• The US model emphasizes individual liberty protection from government intrusion, while China’s Personal Information Protection Law (PIPL) focuses on preventing the misuse of personal data.

Way Forward:

The Digital Personal Data Protection Bill, 2023 extends substantial rights to individuals and provides them with better visibility, awareness, decisional autonomy and control over their data.

It also obligates companies to comply with the rights of the individuals and provide effective redressal mechanisms linked with significant penalties. The Bill also provides for a legislative backing to the Supreme Court’s landmark judgement in Justice K. S. Puttaswamy (Retd) Vs Union of India Case (2017).

Source:   Indian Express

Syllabus

• Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Science and Technology)

Context: As India leads the conversation on digital public infrastructure (DPI) and digital transformation at the G20, it is an opportune moment to steer the wheel towards inclusive DPIs.

About Digital Public Infrastructure (DPI):

• DPI refers to digital solutions that enable basic functions essential for public and private service delivery, i.e., collaboration, commerce, and governance.
• Functionally mimicking physical infrastructures, these DPIs are digital pathways that enable a seamless provision of essential services, benefiting society.
• India, being a pioneer in the field, has successfully implemented various DPI experiments, including Aadhaar, UPI, and account aggregators.
• These initiatives have revolutionized the digital landscape, enabling financial and social inclusion across different sectors.
• India’s DPI ecosystem, known as “India Stack,” consists of interconnected yet independent “blocks” that serve as identity, payment, data sharing, and consent mechanisms.
• The modular layers of India Stack create opportunities for innovation, inclusion, and competition in the digital realm.

Significance of Inclusive DPIs for India:

• Equitable Digital Economy: Inclusive DPIs foster a more equitable and accessible digital economy that provides essential services to all citizens and organizations.
• Wealth Gap Reduction: Bridging the wealth gaps and building an efficient and resilient digital economy that drives economic growth and social development.
• Digital Inclusion and Empowerment: Inclusive DPIs ensure that all segments of society, including marginalized and underserved communities, have access to essential digital services.
  • This fosters digital inclusion, empowering individuals to participate in the digital economy, access information, and avail themselves of various online services.
• Enhanced Service Delivery: Inclusive DPIs improve the delivery of public services such as healthcare, education, and governance.
  • Through digital channels, government agencies can reach citizens more efficiently, reducing bureaucracy and ensuring better service outcomes.
• Reduced Transaction Costs: Digital transactions through inclusive DPIs often have lower transaction costs compared to traditional methods.
  • This benefits businesses, consumers, and the government by reducing the cost of conducting various transactions.
• Data-Driven Governance and Decision Making: Inclusive DPIs facilitate the collection and analysis of data from various sources.
  • This data-driven approach enables more informed decision-making in governance, public policy, and service delivery.
• Improved Agricultural Practices: Inclusive DPIs can provide farmers with real-time information on weather, market prices, and agricultural best practices.
  • This empowers them to make better decisions, leading to improved agricultural productivity.
• Disaster Management and Emergency Response: Inclusive DPIs can play a crucial role in disaster management and emergency response.
  • They enable authorities to disseminate information quickly and coordinate relief efforts more effectively.

Challenges:

• Data collection and breach: One of the common aspect of all such platforms is them being data guzzlers where personal information is gathered from Indians that goes beyond the technical requirements.
  • This only results in multiple individual and social harms, including data breaches.
• Lack of adequate legal framework and accountability: There is a lack of a National Cyber Security Strategy
  • A draft put to public consultation in December 2019 awaits finalisation.
  • In addition, India does not have any data protection law requiring breach notifications to impacted users.
• Lack of legislative mandate: The weak governance processes, which put into question whether they have been created with a legislative mandate.
  • Except for Aadhaar (prompted by litigation), none of these platforms [like Aarogya Setu, CoWIN or even Government E-Marketplace (GEM)] has a legal definition of their functions, roles and responsibilities from an Act of Parliament.
• Many are developed as joint ventures, or special purpose vehicles, that avoid accountability mechanisms such as audits by the Computer Auditor General (CAG) or transparency mandates under the Right to Information Act.
• Language and Content Barriers: The dominance of content in a few major languages can exclude non-English speakers or those who are not proficient in the predominant language.
  • The lack of localized and relevant content can hinder access to vital information and services.

Way Forward:

As India leads the conversation on DPIs and digital transformation at the G20, it is an opportune moment to steer the wheel towards inclusive DPIs, both globally and locally. Reflecting on past experiences and developments occurring internationally, we can draw several key lessons to inform our path forward.

Thus we must prioritise user-centric design to reduce the risks arising from the use of technology and prevent the exacerbation of extant inequalities amongst rural and urban populations, genders or economic groups.

Q1) Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Q2) Consider the following statements

Statement-I:

The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) regulates the Antiquities and Art Treasure Act, of 1972.

Statement-II:

It was established in 1860.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q3) Consider the following statements

Statement-I:

Sorghum helps reduce the risk of a heart attack.

Statement-II:

It helps in conditions like anaemia.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Mains Practice Questions

Q.1) How can the Digital Personal Data Protection Bill balance the competing interests of data privacy, national security, innovation and economic development, while ensuring effective enforcement and compliance with the law? Discuss (250 words)

Q.2) Discuss the significance and potential benefits of inclusive Digital Public Infrastructures (DPIs) in achieving digital inclusion and fostering socio-economic development in India. Suggest ways to make DPIs more inclusive. (250 words)

Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!!

ANSWERS FOR ’ 5th  August 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st