60 Days Plan: UPSC IAS Prelims 2019- Environment and Current Affairs (Day 24)

The Convention on Biological Diversity provides a global legal framework for action on biodiversity. It brings together the Parties in the Conference of the Parties (COP) which is the Convention’s governing body that meets every two years, or as needed, to review progress in the implementation of the Convention,

The Nagoya Protocol and Cartagena Protocol are supplementary agreements under CBD.

Hence statement 1 is correct.

Global Biodiversity Outlook (GBO) is the flagship publication of the Convention on Biological Diversity. It is a periodic report that summarizes the latest data on the status and trends of biodiversity and draws conclusions relevant to the further implementation of the Convention.

Hence statement 2 is correct.

CMS is an environmental treaty under the aegis of the United Nations Environment Programme, CMS provides a global platform for the conservation and sustainable use of migratory animals and their habitats. 

Hence statement 3 is correct.

Migratory species threatened with extinction are listed on Appendix I of the Convention.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

CMS Parties strive towards strictly protecting these animals, conserving or restoring the places where they live, mitigating obstacles to migration and controlling other factors that might endanger them.

Migratory species that need or would significantly benefit from international co-operation are listed in Appendix II of the Convention.

India is a part of the Central Asian Flyway, Central Asian Mammals Initiative.

Hence statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information:

As the only global convention specializing in the conservation of migratory species, their habitats and migration routes, CMS complements and co-operates with a number of other international organizations, NGOs and partners in the media as well as in the corporate sector.

CMS acts as a framework Convention. The agreements may range from legally binding treaties (called Agreements) to less formal instruments, such as Memoranda of Understanding, and can be adapted to the requirements of particular regions.

The International Whaling Commission is an Inter-governmental Organisation whose purpose is the conservation of whales and the management of whaling.

Hence statement 1 is correct.

The legal framework of the IWC is the International Convention for the Regulation of Whaling.  This Convention was established in 1946, making it one of the first pieces of international environmental legislation.  All member countries of the IWC are signatories to this Convention.

Hence statement 2 is correct.

India, China, USA are all members to the International Convention for the Regulation of Whaling.

Hence statement 3 is correct.

Additional Information:

The USA acts as the depository nation for the International Convention for the Regulation of Whaling.

Membership of the IWC is open to any country in the world that formally adheres to the 1946 Convention. Each member country is known as a Contracting Government and represented by a Commissioner, who is assisted by experts and advisers.

The Chair and Vice-chair are elected from among the Commissioners and usually serve for four years, first as Vice-chair for two years, and then as Chair.

The National Biodiversity Authority (NBA) was established in 2003 by the Central Government to implement India’s Biological Diversity Act (2002). The NBA is a Statutory body and that performs facilitative, regulatory and advisory function for Government of India on issue of Conservation, sustainable use of biological resource and fair equitable sharing of benefits of use.

Hence statement 1 is correct.

The Biological Diversity Act covers foreigners, non-resident Indians, body corporate, association or organization that is either not incorporated in India or incorporated in India with non-Indian participation in its share capital or management. These individuals or entities require the approval of the National Biodiversity Authority when they access/ use biological resources and associated knowledge occurring in India for commercial or research purposes or for the purposes of bio-survey or bio-utilisation.

Indians and Indian institutions do not require the approval of the National Biodiversity Authority when they engage in the above mentioned activities. However they would need to inform the State Biodiversity Boards prior to undertaking any research with the intent of commercialisation.

Any application for IPR based on biological resources should be approved by NBA.

Hence statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information:

The Biological Diversity Act excludes Indian biological resources that are normally traded as commodities. Such exemption holds only so far the biological resources are used as commodities and for no other purpose. The Act also excludes traditional uses of Indian biological resources and associated knowledge and when they are used in collaborative research projects between Indian and foreign institutions with the approval of the central government.

The State Government may constitute any forest-land or waste-land which is the property of Government, or over which the Government has proprietary rights, or to the whole or any part of the forest-produce of which the Government is entitled, a reserved forest in the manner provided in The Indian Forest Act, 1927.

Hence statement 1 is correct.

The State Government may, by notification in the Official Gazette, declare the provisions applicable to any forest-land or waste-land which, is not included in a reserved forest but which is the property of Government, or over which the Government has proprietary rights, or to the whole or any part of the forest produce of which the Government is entitled.

The forest-land and waste-lands comprised in any such notification shall be called a “protected forest”.

Hence statement 2 is correct.

The control of all rivers and their banks as regards the floating of timber, as well as the control of all timber and other forest-produce in transit by land or water, is vested in the State Government, and it may make rules to regulate the transit of all timber and other forest-produce.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

The Cartagena Protocol on Biosafety to the Convention on Biological Diversity is an international agreement which aims to ensure the safe handling, transport and use of living modified organisms (LMOs) resulting from modern biotechnology that may have adverse effects on biological diversity, taking also into account risks to human health.

Hence statement 1 is correct.

The Nagoya Protocol on Access to Genetic Resources and the Fair and Equitable Sharing of Benefits Arising from their Utilization to the Convention on Biological Diversity is an international agreement which aims at sharing the benefits arising from the utilization of genetic resources in a fair and equitable way.

Hence statement 2 is correct.

Reducing emissions from deforestation and forest degradation (REDD+) is a mechanism developed by Parties to the United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC).

Hence statement 1 is correct.

The United Nations General Assembly proclaimed 21 March the International Day of Forests (IDF) in 2012. The Day celebrates and raises awareness of the importance of all types of forests.

The theme for each International Day of Forests is chosen by the Collaborative Partnership on Forests. The theme for 2019 is Forests and Education.

The theme for 2018 was “Forests and Sustainable Cities”.

Hence statement 2 is correct.

Additional information:

The United Nations Collaborative Programme on Reducing Emissions from Deforestation and Forest Degradation in Developing Countries was launched in 2008 and builds on the convening role and technical expertise of the Food and Agriculture Organization of the United Nations (FAO), the United Nations Development Programme (UNDP) and the United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

The Convention creates legally binding obligations for the implementation of the Prior Informed Consent (PIC) procedure. It built on the voluntary PIC procedure, initiated by UNEP and FAO in 1989 and ceased on 24 February 2006.

Hence statement 1 is correct.

The chemicals listed in Annex III include pesticides and industrial chemicals that have been banned or severely restricted for health or environmental reasons by two or more Parties and which the Conference of the Parties has decided to subject to the PIC procedure.

Hence statement 2 is correct.

Meetings of the Conferences of the Parties are usually held every two years.

Hence statement 3 is incorrect.

The Conference of the Parties reviews and evaluates the implementation of the Convention. It reviews chemicals brought forward for its consideration by the Chemical Review Committee. It also reviews and adopts the programme of work and budget of the Convention for each biennium.

Parties must take measures to eliminate the production and use of the chemicals listed under Annex A. Specific exemptions for use or production are listed in the Annex and apply only to Parties that register for them.

Hence statement 1 is correct.

Parties to the Stockholm Convention have an obligation to ensure that chemicals listed in Annex A for which any specific exemption is in effect or a chemical listed in Annex B for which a specific exemption or acceptable purpose is in effect are only exported to States that are not Parties to the Convention which have provided annual certification to the exporting Party.

This indicates that a party to the convention can export the chemicals listed under Annex A to a non-Party state. (With some conditions and specific procedure)

Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

USA has not ratified the Convention, while China and India has ratified.

Hence statement 3 is correct.

Background:

The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs), a global treaty with an objective to protect human health and the environment from persistent organic pollutants was adopted by the Conference of Plenipotentiaries on 22 May 2001 in Stockholm, Sweden. The Convention entered into force on 17 May 2004 and requires its parties to take measures to eliminate or reduce the release of POPs into the environment.

The Global Environment Facility was established on the eve of the 1992 Rio Earth Summit to help tackle our planet’s most pressing environmental problems.

The GEF provides funding to assist developing countries in meeting the objectives of international environmental conventions. The GEF serves as “financial mechanism” to five conventions, which are

• Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD),

• United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change (UNFCCC),

• Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants (POPs),

• UN Convention to Combat Desertification (UNCCD), and

• Minamata Convention on Mercury.

The conventions, for which the GEF serve as financial mechanism, provide broad strategic guidance to the two governing bodies of the GEF: the GEF Council and the GEF Assembly. The GEF Council converts this broad guidance into operational criteria (guidelines) for GEF projects.

Agenda 21, established at the 1992 United Nations Conference on Environment and Development, or “Earth Summit”, in Rio de Janeiro, Brazil, is the blueprint for sustainability in the 21st century. Agenda 21 is a commitment to sustainable development, which was agreed by many of the world’s governments.

Nations that have pledged to take part in Agenda 21 are monitored by the International Commission on Sustainable Development, and are encouraged to promote Agenda 21 at the local and regional levels within their own countries.

Hence statement 1 is correct.

The Agenda 21 is a non-binding programme of action. The implementation of the Agenda is primarily the responsibility of governments, through national strategies, plans, policies and procedures. International and regional organizations are also called upon to contribute to this effort.

Hence statement 2 is correct.

Global Footprint Network, an international non-profit organization founded in 2003, envisions a future where all can thrive within the means of our one planet.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

The Living Planet Report documents the state of the planet—including biodiversity, ecosystems, and demand for natural resources—and what it means for humans and wildlife. Published by WWF every two years, the report brings together a variety of research to provide a comprehensive view of the health of the Earth.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Earth Overshoot Day is an initiative of Global Footprint Network, an international research organization that is changing the way the world measures and manages its natural resources.

Hence statement 3 is correct.

Starting as a symbolic lights out event in Sydney in 2007, Earth Hour is now the world’s largest grassroots movement for the environment, inspiring millions of people to take action for our planet and nature. It is organized by WWF.

Starting as a symbolic lights out event in Sydney in 2007, Earth Hour is now the world’s largest grassroots movement for the environment, inspiring millions of people to take action for our planet and nature.

Hence statement 1 is correct.

Global Environment Outlook is published by United Nations Environment Programme (UNEP).

Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

The United Nations Environment Assembly was created in June 2012, when world leaders called for UN Environment to be strengthened and upgraded during the United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development, also referred to as RIO+20.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

The Third Environment Assembly took place in Nairobi 4-6 December 2017 Assembly under the overarching theme “Towards a pollution-free planet”.

The Fourth Environment Assembly took place in Nairobi 11-15 March 2019, focusing on the theme “Innovative solutions for environmental challenges and sustainable consumption and production”.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

The United Nations Environment Assembly is the world’s highest-level decision-making body on the environment. It addresses the critical environmental challenges facing the world today. Understanding these challenges and preserving and rehabilitating our environment is at the heart of the 2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development.

CITES (the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora) is an international agreement between governments. Its aim is to ensure that international trade in specimens of wild animals and plants does not threaten their survival.

CITES is an international agreement to which States and regional economic integration organizations adhere voluntarily.

Hence statement 3 is correct.

States that have agreed to be bound by the Convention (joined CITES) are known as Parties. Although CITES is legally binding on the Parties – in other words they have to implement the Convention – it does not take the place of national laws. Rather it provides a framework to be respected by each Party, which has to adopt its own domestic legislation to ensure that CITES is implemented at the national level.

Hence statement 2 is correct.

The CITES Monitoring the Illegal Killing of Elephants (MIKE) Programme is a site-based system designed to monitor trends in the illegal killing of elephants, build management capacity and provide information to help range States make appropriate management and enforcement decisions.

Hence statement 1 is correct.

ICCWC is the collaborative effort of five inter-governmental organizations working to bring coordinated support to the national wildlife law enforcement agencies and to the sub-regional and regional networks that, on a daily basis, act in defense of natural resources. The ICCWC partners are the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) Secretariat, INTERPOL, the United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime, the World Bank and the World Customs Organization.

Hence statement 1 is correct.

UNODC published World Wildlife Crime Report.

The report was developed by UNODC with data provided by partner organizations under the International Consortium on Combating Wildlife Crime (ICCWC), including the Secretariat of the Convention on International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES) and the World Customs Organization (WCO).

Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

The Global Tiger Forum (GTF) is the only inter- governmental international body established with members from willing countries to embark on a global campaign to protect the Tiger.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

Membership of 7 Tiger range countries (India, Bangladesh, Bhutan, Nepal, Myanmar, Cambodia, Vietnam) and UK- Non Tiger Range countries willing to support and/or participate in Tiger conservation programs).

Hence statement 2 is correct.

Additional Information:

The GTF was formed in 1993 on recommendations from an international symposium on Tiger Conservation at New Delhi, India.

The GTF has a General Assembly meeting every 3 years and Standing committee meetings at least once a year.

The Secretariat of GTF is headed by a Secretary General and is located in New Delhi, India.

The Regional Seas Programme, launched in 1974 in the wake of the 1972 United Nations Conference on the Human Environment held in Stockholm, is one of UNEP’s most significant achievements in the past 35 years. The Regional Seas Programme aims to address the accelerating degradation of the world’s oceans and coastal areas through the sustainable management and use of the marine and coastal environment, by engaging neighboring countries in comprehensive and specific actions to protect their shared marine environment.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

The South Asian Seas Programme is one of 18 such programmes & the South Asian Seas Action Plan was adopted in March 1995 and today enjoys the unqualified support of the region’s five countries (Bangladesh, India, Maldives, Pakistan and Sri Lanka).

Hence statement 2 is correct.

South Asia Co-operative Environment Programme (SACEP) is an inter-governmental organization, established in 1982 by the governments of South Asia to promote and support protection, management and enhancement of the environment in the region.

Hence statement 1 is correct.

SACEP also serves as the secretariat of South Asian Seas Programme (SASP).

Hence statement 2 is correct.

The member countries of SACEP are Afghanistan, Bangladesh, Bhutan, India, Maldives, Nepal, Pakistan and Sri Lanka. These are the member states of SAARC.

Hence statement 3 is correct.

The World Sustainability Forum (WSF) is an annual sustainability conference organized by the MDPI Sustainability Foundation. Held for the first time in 2011, the forum covers research in a variety of fields that are closely related to sustainability and sustainable development.

Hence statement 1 is incorrect.

The 7th World Sustainability Forum (2018) was organized in Beijing, China.

Hence statement 2 is incorrect.

Additional Information:

The World Sustainability Award is funded by the MDPI Sustainability Foundation to encourage new initiatives and developments in sustainability with the ultimate aim to foster the transfer from sustainability research to sustainable practices and societies.

CITES entered into force on 1st July 1975.

The Basel Convention on the Control of Transboundary Movements of Hazardous Wastes and their Disposal was adopted on 22 March 1989 and entered into force on 5 May 1992.

The Convention on Biological Diversity (CBD) was opened for signature at the Earth Summit in Rio de Janeiro on 5 June 1992 and entered into force on 29 December 1993.

The Stockholm Convention on Persistent Organic Pollutants was adopted on 22 May 2001 and entered into force on 17 May 2004.

Note: It is not that one must memorize all the dates and years. The focus should be on a broad understanding of timeline of various important environmental events which will many times help to solve questions directly or indirectly. (Note that UPSC has asked similar questions from various subjects in previous years)

It is a specialized agency of the United Nations. It codifies the principles and techniques of international air navigation and fosters the planning and development of international air transport to ensure safe and orderly growth. Its headquarters is located in the Quartier International of Montreal, Quebec, Canada.

The Convention on International Civil Aviation, also known as the Chicago Convention, established the International Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO).

The word swap means exchange. A currency swap between two countries is an agreement or contract to exchange currencies (of the two countries or any hard currency) with predetermined terms and conditions.

A currency swap agreement between two countries is signed between the central banks. In this case, RBI will get a certain amount of yen and the Bank of Japan will get an equivalent amount in Indian rupees. The rate will be decided on the basis of prevailing market rates.

The main purpose of currency swaps is to avoid turbulence and other risks in the foreign exchange market and exchange rate. Central banks and governments engage in currency swaps with foreign counterparts to ensure adequate foreign currency during the time of foreign currency scarcity. Both works with the same objective and through similar mechanism.

The Kuldiha Wildlife Sanctuary is situated in the Balasore district of Odisha.

It is linked with Simlipal National Park via the Sukhupada and Nato hill ranges.

Prepaid Payment Instruments (PPIs)

• PPIs are methods that facilitate purchase of goods and services against the value stored on such instruments.
• The value stored on such instruments represents the value paid for by the holder, by cash, by debit to a bank account, or by credit card.
• The prepaid instruments can be issued as smart cards, magnetic stripe cards, internet accounts, online wallets, mobile accounts, mobile wallets, paper vouchers and any such instruments used to access the prepaid amount.

Reserve Bank of India has released the guidelines for interoperability between prepaid payment instruments (PPIs)

• Interoperability allows compatibility between payment systems and once implemented, a user will be able to transfer funds between wallets and also from their wallets to bank accounts.
• The rules on interoperability of prepaid payment instruments (PPIs) do not force PPIs such as wallets to permit such transfers; instead, these guidelines are for “participating PPI issuers, who choose to adopt interoperability”.
• In cases where PPIs are issued in the form of wallets, interoperability across PPIs shall be enabled through unified payments interface (UPI).
• Where PPIs are issued in the form of cards, the cards shall be affiliated to the authorized card networks.

The Pearl River Delta Metropolitan Region, also known as Greater Bay, is the low-lying area surrounding the Pearl River estuary, where the Pearl River flows into the South China Sea. It is one of the most densely urbanized regions in the world.

Regions

• Guangdong
• Hong Kong
• Macau

Scientists at the Council of Scientific and Industrial Research’s Lucknow-based Indian Institute of Toxicology Research (CSIR-IITR) have developed a technology for disinfecting water that promises to provide safe and clean drinking water at a cost of just two paise per litre.

The technology is based on the principle of anodic oxidation. Raw water is passed through a chamber and disinfection occurs with the help of singlet oxygen species generated at the anode. The technology has been named Oneer – ‘O’ for singlet oxygen species and `neer’ for water.

A key feature of the technology is that purified water will retain all essential minerals and there will be no wastage as it happens in reverse osmosis (RO)-based purifiers. In addition, there will be no need to add any chemical and the water can be stored for around 30 hours without the risk of any recontamination.

https://www.thehindubusinessline.com/news/science/csir-transfers-technology-for-disinfecting-water/article25257755.ece

The Koravar (also known as Malai Kuruvans) were one of the tribes of the Madras Presidency during the British Raj in India. They were primarily involved in the salt trade.

In 1913 they were classed as a criminal tribe by the British authorities. Today there are an estimated 1.2 million (12 lakh) Koravar in Tamil Nadu.

https://www.thehindu.com/society/history-and-culture/pazhangudi-naadham-a-tribal-festival-in-chennai/article25095942.ece

This is a difficult question but since it was in news, better we know it now ☺

Refer to the given article that featured in The Hindu.

https://www.thehindu.com/society/history-and-culture/how-indian-thought-influenced-ts-eliot/article25122620.ece

Pushkaram is an Indian festival dedicated to the worship of rivers.

https://www.thehindu.com/society/history-and-culture/the-story-of-tamiraparani-the-copper-maiden/article25191740.ece

Who was responsible for Partition of Bengal? Lord Curzon

Titled State Entry Into Delhi, the painting was commissioned by the then British government. Painted by British artist Roderick Mackenzie, the picture shows Viceroy Lord Curzon, seated on an elephant and leading the ceremonial procession of the Delhi Durbar followed by several Indian kings.

The procession goes past the north side of the magnificent Jama Masjid, rendered in splendour with its large dome and towering minarets.

The 1903 Delhi Durbar, which was held after the death of Queen Victoria death in 1901, also marked the declaration of Edward VII and Queen Alexandra as the Emperor and Empress of the country.

https://www.thehindu.com/entertainment/art/iconic-painting-of-delhi-durbar-of-1903-restored/article25348072.ece