DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th February 2023

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Syllabus

• Prelims – Geography 

Context: Teesta river water conflict between India and Bangladesh.

About Teesta River: 

• Teesta river is a major right bank tributary of the Brahmaputra (known as Jamuna in Bangladesh), flowing through India and Bangladesh.
• It originates in the Himalayas near the Tso Lhamo Lake, in Sikkim and flows to the south through West Bengal before entering Bangladesh.

• Source: Pahurni glacier, Khangse glacier and ChhoLhamo Lake are also considered the sources of the Teesta River.
• River basin Distribution:  The major portion of the river basin lies in India and only 17% of it is in Bangladesh. 

• The river joins the Brahmaputra in Bangladesh before it flows into the Bay of Bengal after meeting with the Ganges and the Meghna.
• Two major large barrages constructed on Teesta –
  • Gajoldoba in West Bengal, India
  • Duani in Bangladesh.

Major Tributaries of Teesta River

• Left-bank Tributaries: Lachung Chhu, Chakung Chhu, Dik Chhu, Rani Khola and Rangpo Chhu.
• Right-bank Tributaries: Zemu Chhu, Rangyong Chhu and Rangit River.

Source: DTE

Previous Year Questions

Q.1) Gandikota canyon of South India was created by which one of the following rivers? (2022)

1. Cauvery
2. Manjira
3. Pennar
4. Tungabhadra

Q.2) Consider the following pairs:

Reservoirs        :     States

1. Ghataprabha :     Telangana
2. Gandhi Sagar :     Madhya Pradesh
3. Indira Sagar :     Andhra Pradesh
4. Maithon :     Chhattisgarh

How many pairs given above are not correctly matched? (2022)

1. Only one pair
2. Only two pairs
3. Only three pairs
4. All four pairs

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Syllabus

• Prelims – History

Context: 

The Prime Minister of India to inaugurate 200th birth anniversary celebrations of Maharishi Dayanand Saraswati.

About Maharishi Dayanand Saraswati (1824-1883):

•  He was an Indian philosopher, social leader and founder of the Arya Samaj, a reform movement of the Vedic dharma.
• He was the first to give the call for Swaraj as “India for Indians” in 1876, a call later taken up by Lokmanya Tilak.
• Denouncing the idolatry and ritualistic worship, he worked towards reviving Vedic ideologies.
• Teachings and Contributions: 
  • He believed in the infallible authority of the Vedas and advocated the doctrine of Karma and Reincarnation.
  • Among Dayananda’s contributions were his promoting of equal rights for women, such as the right to education and reading of Indian scriptures.
  • He translated the Vedas and wrote three books 
    • Satyartha Prakash in Hindi, 
    • Veda Bhasya Bhumika, an introduction to his Vedic commentary, and 
    • Veda Bhashya, a Vedic commentary in Sanskrit on the Yajurveda and the major part of the Rig-Veda.
  • He also established Vedic schools for the education of girls and boys of all castes.

Source:  News on air

Previous Year Questions

Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters:

1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh
2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
3. Rash Behari Bose

Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party? (2022)

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only

Q.2) With reference to Madanapalle of Andhra Pradesh, which one of the following statements is correct? (2021)

1. Pingali Venkayya designed the tricolour Indian National Flag here.
2. Pattabhi Sitaramaiah led the Quit India Movement of Andhra region from here.
3. Rabindranath Tagore translated the National Anthem from Bengali to English here.
4. Madame Blavatsky and Colonel Olcott set up headquarters of Theosophical Society first here.

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Syllabus

•    Prelims – Science and Technology 

Context: Diyodar meteorite that hit India in 2022 was India’s first aubrite in 170 years

About Diyodar Meteorite:

• A meteorite is a celestial object (made of rocks and metals) that enters the atmosphere of the earth and reaches the surface.
• The meteorite is a “rare, unique specimen” of aubrite.
• India has been the site of hundreds of meteorite crashes, but this is only the second recorded crash of an aubrite.

What are aubrites? 

• Aubrites “are coarse-grained igneous rocks that formed” in oxygen-poor conditions, and thus “contain a variety of exotic minerals that are not found on Earth”.
• For example, the mineral heideite was first described in the Basti meteorite.
• Source of Aubrites : not yet sure of their origin, but some signs indicate that they could be from the asteroid 3103 Eger or from the planet Mercury.
• Composition: Around 90% of the meteorite was composed of orthopyroxene. Pyroxenes are silicates consisting of single chains of silica tetrahedra (SiO 4); orthopyroxenes are pyroxenes with a certain structure.

Source: The Hindu

Previous Year Questions

Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022)

1. A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.
2. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.
3. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
4. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same speed and places a probe on its surface.

Q.2) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022)

1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.
2. Tsunamis could occur at equatorial regions.
3. Power grids could be damaged.
4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
2. 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
3. 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

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Syllabus

• Prelims – Polity and Governance

Context – President Droupadi Murmu appoints 6 new governors, reshuffles 7 others.

 About Constitutional Provisions Related to the Governor:

• Article 153 says that there shall be a Governor for each State.
  • One person can be appointed as Governor for two or more States.
• A Governor is appointed by the President and is a nominee of the Central Government.
  • The Governor normally enjoys  5-year tenure, he can remain in office only until the pleasure of the President. ( No security of tenure)
• Governor has a dual role.
  • Constitutional head of the state
  • Functions as a vital link between the Union Government and the State Government.
• Salary and Allowances: are charged from Consolidated Fund of India.

Functions of Governor:

• There is a CoM (council of ministers) with the CM at the head to aid and advise the Governor in the exercise of his functions, except some conditions for discretion. (Article 163)
• Power to grant pardons, reprieves, etc. (Article 161).
• Governor assents, withholds assent, or reserves the bill for the consideration of the President passed by the Legislative Assembly (Article 200).
• Governors may promulgate the Ordinances under certain circumstances (Article 213).
• In the Constitution, there are no guidelines for exercise of the Governor’s powers, including for appointing a CM or dissolving the Assembly.
• There is no limit set for how long a Governor can withhold assent to a Bill.
• The Governor sends a report to the centre which forms the basis of the Union cabinet’s recommendations to the President for invoking Article 356 (President’s Rule).

 Source:   Indian Express

Previous Year Questions

Q.1) Which one of the following suggested that the Governor should be an eminent person from outside the State and should be a detached figure without intense political links or should not have taken part in politics in the recent past? (2019)

1.  First Administrative Reforms Commission (1966)
2. Rajamannar Committee (1969)
3.  Sarkaria Commission (1983)
4. National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2000)

Q.2) Consider the following statements:

1. No criminal proceedings shall be instituted against the Governor of a State in any court during his term of office.
2. The emoluments and allowances of the Governor of a State shall not be diminished during his term of office.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2018)

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

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Syllabus

• Prelims – Governance

In news – PM Modi congratulates India post for opening more than 10 lakh Sukanya Samriddhi Account in two days.

About Sukanya Samriddhi Scheme

• Scheme under Ministry of Women and Child Development
• Small deposit scheme for girl child, launched as a part of the ‘Beti Bachao Beti Padhao’ campaign, which would fetch an attractive interest rate and provide income tax rebate.

Benefits:

• Interest rate on deposits Compounded annually with option for monthly interest pay-outs to be calculated on balance in completed thousands.
• As applicable under section 80C of the IT Act, 1961, the scheme has been extended Triple exempt benefits i.e. there will be no tax on the amount invested, amount earned as interest and amount withdrawn.

Eligibility

• Parents or legal guardians can open deposits on behalf of a girl child (including adopted girl child) for up to 2 daughters aged below 10.
• Minimum of Rs 250 of initial deposit with multiple of Rs 150 thereafter with annual ceiling of Rs.150000 in a financial year.
• Maximum period upto which deposits can be made 15 years from the date of opening of the account.
• The account shall mature on completion of 21 years from the date of opening of account or on the marriage of Account holder whichever is earlier.

Source:   All India Radio

Previous Year Questions

Q.1) In India under cyber insurance for individuals, which of the following benefits are generally covered, in addition to payment for the loss of funds and other benefits? (2020)

1. Cost of restoration of the computer system in case of malware disrupting access to one’s computer
2. Cost of a new computer if some miscreant wilfully damages it, if proved so
3. Cost of hiring a specialized consultant to minimize the loss in case of cyber extortion
4. Cost of defence in the Court of Law if any third party files a suit

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 4 only
2. 1, 3 and 4 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.2) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019)

1. Pregnant women are entitled for three months pre-delivery and three months post-delivery paid leave.
2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother minimum six creche visits daily.
3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

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Syllabus

• Prelims – Polity and Governance

Context: The Ministry of Electronics and Information Technology (MeitY) recently issued orders to block some apps on an “urgent” and “emergency” basis under Section 69(A) of the Information Technology Act, 2000.

About Information Technology Act, 2000:

• The Information Technology (IT) Act, 2000, governs all activities related to the use of computer resources.
• It covers all ‘intermediaries’ who play a role in the use of computer resources and electronic records.

About Section 69 of the IT Act:

• It confers on the Central and State governments the power to issue directions to intercept, monitor or decrypt any information generated, transmitted, received or stored in any computer resource.
•  It allows the government to issue content-blocking orders to online intermediaries such as Internet Service Providers (ISPs), telecom service providers, web hosting services, etc.

The grounds on which these powers may be exercised are:

• In the interest of the sovereignty or integrity of India, defence of India, the security of the state.
• Friendly relations with foreign states.
• Public order, or for preventing incitement to the commission of any cognizable offence relating to these.
• For investigating any offence.

Process of Blocking Applications and Internet Websites:

• Section 69A, for similar reasons and grounds (as stated above), enables the Centre to ask any agency of the government, or any intermediary, to block access to the public of any information generated, transmitted, received or stored or hosted on any computer resource.
• Any such request for blocking access must be based on reasons given in writing.

Source: Indian Express

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Syllabus

• Prelims – Governance

Context:  Union Women and Child Development minister alleged massive irregularities in the utilisation of funds allocated to the state of West Bengal under PMKVY.

About Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)

• Launched in 2015, it is a flagship program of the Ministry of Skill Development and Entrepreneurship (MSDE) and implemented by the National Skill Development Corporation (NSDC). 
• Under PMKVY, training and assessment fees are paid completely by the Government.

• Funding: The scheme is being implemented at the Centre and the State level with a 50:50 allocation of funds and targets with more enhanced involvement of District Skill Committees (DSC).
• Objective: To enable Indian youth to take up industry-relevant skill training that will help them in securing a better livelihood.

Key Components:

• Short Term Training: STT component imparted at PMKVY Training Centres (TC) is expected to benefit candidates of Indian nationality who are either school/college dropouts or unemployed.
• Recognition of Prior Learning (RPL): It is a skill certification component to enable Indian youth to take on industry-relevant skill certification which will help them to secure a better livelihood.
  • Individuals with prior learning experience or skills can register themselves and get assessed and certified under the RPL component of PMKVY.
  • It focuses mainly on individuals engaged in unregulated sectors.

About Skill India Mission:

• Skill India Mission is an initiative of the Government of India, launched by the Prime Minister on the 16th of July 2015 with an aim to train over 40 crore people in India in different skills by 2022.
• It includes various initiatives of the government like
  • National Skill Development Mission,
  • National Policy for Skill Development and Entrepreneurship, 2015,
  • Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY)
  • Skill Loan scheme.

Source:  Indian Express

Q.1) With reference to Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana, consider the following statements: (2018)

1. It is the flagship scheme of the Ministry of Labour and Employment.
2. It, among other things, will also impart training in soft skills, entrepreneurship, and financial and digital literacy.
3. It aims to align the competencies of the unregulated workforce of the country to the National Skill Qualification Framework.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 3 only
2. 2 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

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Syllabus

• Prelims – Polity and Governance 

Context: The long-pending challenge to the practice of excommunication in the Shia sect has been referred to the 9-judge Bench hearing the Sabarimala review petition on essential religious practice.

Who are the Dawoodi Bohras?

• Shia Muslims whose leader is known as the Al-Dai-Al-Mutlaq.
• There are around 1 million Dawoodi Bohras spread around the world.
• The main language of the community is Lisan al-Dawat, a dialect of Gujarati with inclusions from Arabic and Urdu.

Practice of excommunication in the Dawoodi Bohra community

• The leader of the community is recognised by the members as having the right to excommunicate its members.
• In practical terms, excommunication means not being allowed to access a mosque belonging to the community or a burial dedicated to the community.

Legal validity of excommunication?

• Article 25 – Freedom of conscience and free profession, practice and propagation of religion
• Article 26 – Freedom to manage religious affairs
• The practice was claimed to be essential to the Dawoodi Bohra faith.
• SC’s view- The SC held in 1962 held that the Dai’s position is an essential part of the community.

What is the plea now?

• The 2016 Act– The Maharashtra Protection of People from Social Boycott (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2016 prohibits social boycott of a person or a group of persons describing it as “inhuman”.
• The act defines 16 types of social boycott– including preventing members of a community from having access to facilities including community halls, and burial grounds, among others.
• It is termed as a violation of fundamental rights punishable with imprisonment for up to 3 years.
• Supreme Court’s consideration– The Supreme Court has said that it would consider whether the practice protected by the 1962 constitutional bench order can continue.
  • It is referred to the 9-judge Bench hearing the Sabarimala review petition on essential religious practice.

Source: Indian Express

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Syllabus

• Prelims – International Relations

Context – On the 2nd day of City Sherpa meeting of the sixth Urban20 (U20) cycle, which is being held in Ahmedabad, close to 40 delegates visited the World Heritage walled city of Ahmedabad, where a heritage walk was organised for them early in the morning.

About Urban-20:

• Urban 20 (U20) is an initiative developed in 2017 under the leadership of the Mayor of Buenos Aires and Mayor of Paris, and convened by the C40 Cities Climate Leadership Group (C40) in collaboration with United Cities and Local Governments (UCLG).
• It was launched on December 12, 2017 at the One Planet Summit in Paris.
• U20 seeks to develop a joint position and collective messages to inform and enrich the discussions of national leaders at the G20 Summit through unique urban perspectives.
• Urban 20 aims to tackle global challenges by leveraging the potential of cities as hubs of diversity and innovation.
• The U20 brings together mayors from G20 cities under a common framework and coordinates a joint position to inform the discussions of national leaders.
• Contributions from the U20 are shared with the G20 Presidency and Heads of State enhancing the role of cities as global economic and political leaders.

• Priority areas for Urban 20 event are as follows:

• • Encouraging environmentally responsive behaviour
  • Ensuring water security
  • Accelerating Climate Finance
  • Leveraging ‘local’ potential and identity
  • Reinventing urban governance and planning frameworks
  • Catalysing digital urban futures

Source: PIB

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Syllabus

• Mains – GS 2 (International Relations)

Context: The Indo-Pacific strategy announced by Canada uses blunt language against China and sees closer engagement with India as critical to its success.

About India – Canada relations:

Historical Background:

• India established diplomatic relations with Canada in 1947.
• Prime Minister of India’s visit to Canada in April 2015 elevated the bilateral relation to a strategic partnership.
• In recent years, both countries have been working to enhance bilateral cooperation in a number of areas of mutual importance.

Nuclear Cooperation:

• Indo-Canadian relations deteriorated in the wake of India’s Smiling Buddha nuclear test of May 1974 when the Canadian government severed bilateral nuclear cooperation with both India and Pakistan.
• However, in June 2010, a Nuclear Cooperation Agreement (NCA) with Canada was signed and came into force in September 2013.
• The Appropriate Arrangement (AA) for the NCA was signed in March 2013, under which a Joint Committee on Civil Nuclear Cooperation was constituted.

Commercial relations:

• An annualised Trade Ministers dialogue has been institutionalised to review trade and economic relations.
• Both sides are engaged in technical negotiations for a Comprehensive Economic Partnership Agreement (CEPA) including trade in goods, services, investment, trade facilitation etc.

Science and Technology:

• Indo-Canadian Science and Technology cooperation has been primarily focussed on promoting Industrial R and D which has potential for application through the development of new IP, processes, prototypes or products.
• Canada was a partner country for the Technology Summit 2017.

Security and Defence:

• India and Canada collaborate closely in international fora, particularly through the UN, Commonwealth and G-20.
• Defence ties have been expanding with mutual ship visits.
• There is robust cooperation on counter-terrorism issues, particularly through the framework of the JWG on Counter-Terrorism.

Space:

• India and Canada have been pursuing successful cooperative and commercial relations in the field of Space since the 1990s mainly on space science, earth observation, satellite launch services and ground support for space missions.
• ISRO and Canadian Space Agency (CSA) signed two MOUs in the field of exploration and utilisation of outer space in October 1996 and March 2003.
• ANTRIX, the Commercial arm of ISRO, has launched several nanosatellites from Canada.
• ISRO in its 100th Satellite PSLV launched in 2018, also flew the Canadian first LEO satellite, from the Indian spaceport Sriharikota, Andhra Pradesh.

Agricultural cooperation:

• The bilateral MoU on agriculture cooperation was signed at the federal level in 2009.
• The first meeting of the JWG set under this MoU was held in New Delhi in 2010, which led to the creation of three sub-groups
• on knowledge exchange in emerging technologies;
  • animal development and
  • agricultural marketing.
• A Joint Working Group for Pulses has been set up separately.

Indian diaspora:

• Canada hosts one of the largest Indian diasporas in the world, numbering 1.6 million (PIOs and NRIs) which account for more than 4% of its total population.
• The diaspora has done commendably well in every sector in Canada.
• In the field of politics, in particular, the present House of Commons (total strength of 338) has 22 Members of Parliament of Indian origin.

Cultural Exchanges:

• Canada was the Country of Focus at the 48th International Film Festival of India held in Goa in November 2017.
• There is also an India – Canada Coproduction Agreement in films.
• Diwali has been celebrated on Parliament Hill for the last 18

Challenges in India-Canada ties:

• Khalistan separatism issue:
  • There is resurgence of Khalistan separatism and calls for a “referendum” amid the Sikh community in Canada.
  • There are also incidents of vandalism and violence targeting the Indian community in Canada.
• Canadian pronouncements on developments in India:
  • Canadian pronouncements on developments in India, including on rights and freedoms can always set off diplomatic landmines.
• India’s structural impediments:
  • India still has to overcome structural impediments such as complex labour laws, market protectionism, and bureaucratic regulations.
• Inadequate trade:
  • While India–Canada economic relations have made some progress, Canada remains an insignificant trading partner for India.

Way Forward:

Canada’s Indo-Pacific strategy, which says India’s strategic importance can only increase as its economy grows and it becomes the world’s most populous country, offers a wider staging ground for the two to come together to work for the mutual benefits.

There could also be a defence and security component with Canada’s resolve to participate more in maritime security and exercises in the Indo-Pacific, and deeper counter-terrorism cooperation than exists now.

Source: Indian Express

Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding Pradhan Mantri Kaushal Vikas Yojana (PMKVY):

1. It is a flagship program of the Ministry of Rural Development
2. It is implemented by the National Skill Development Corporation
3. Under PMKVY, training and assessment fees are paid completely by the respective state govts.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 only
3. 3 only
4. 1 and 3 only

Q.2) Consider the following statements regarding Sukanya Samriddhi Scheme:

1. The scheme comes under the Ministry of Women and Child Development
2. It is a small deposit scheme for girl child, launched as a part of the ‘Beti Bachao Beti Padhao’ campaign.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.3) With reference to Indian polity, consider the following statements:

1. The Governor is appointed by the President
2. The Salary and Allowances of Governor are charged from Consolidated Fund of State.
3. The Governors may promulgate the Ordinances under certain circumstances.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1 2 and 3

Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!!

ANSWERS FOR ’ 13th February 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st

Q.1) – c

Q.2) – c

Q.3) – a