DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 7th September 2023

Syllabus

• Prelims –Economy

Context: Minister of Road Transport and Highways Nitin Gadkari recently suggested the revival of the Build Operate Transfer (BOT) model via smaller highway projects.

Background:-

• Minister of Road Transport and Highways said that the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI) and other road-building agencies should look at reviving the Build Operate Transfer (BOT) model by putting up projects costing less than Rs 1,000 crore for award through this route.
• The minister’s comments came amid a prolonged dearth of private investments in the sector caused much strain on the exchequer.

About Build Operate Transfer (BOT) model:-

IMAGE SOURCE: apollobt.com

• A build-operate-transfer (BOT) contract is a model used to finance large projects, typically infrastructure projects developed through public-private partnerships.
• They are normally large-scale, greenfield infrastructure projects that would otherwise be financed, built, and operated solely by the government.
• Under a build-operate-transfer (BOT) contract, an entity—usually a government—grants a concession to a private company to finance, build, and operate a project for a period of 20 to 30 years, hoping to earn a profit.
• After that period, the project is returned to the public entity that originally granted the concession.

Other commonly used PPP investment models in India:-

Build ,Operate ,Least ,Transfer (BOLT):–

• In this approach, the government gives a concession to a private entity to build a facility (and possibly design it as well), own the facility, and lease the facility to the public sector.
• At the end of the lease period transfer the ownership of the facility to the government.

Hybrid Annuity Model (HAM):-

• The central government bears 40% of the project cost.
• The remaining amount is arranged by the developer.

Engineering, Procurement and Construction Model (EPC)

• The EPC Model partnership requires the government to undertake the total funding of the project.
• The Private sector partner provides the engineering and construction requirements.

About the National Highways Authority of India (NHAI):-

• Establishment:
• Ministry: Ministry of Road Transport and Highways.
• NHAI is an autonomous agency of the Union Government, responsible for the management of a network of over 70,000 km of national highways in India.
• It is a statutory body.
• It was established through the National Highways Authority of India Act, 1988.
• 1995: It was formally made an autonomous body.
• It is responsible for the development, management, operation, and maintenance of National Highways.

MUST READ: Forum for Decarbonizing Transport

SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following infrastructure sectors: (2023)

1. Affordable housing
2. Mass rapid transport
3. Healthcare
4. Renewable energy

On how many of the above do UNOPS Sustainable Investments in Infrastructure and Innovation (S3i) initiatives focus on investments?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Q.2) About three-fourths of the world’s cobalt, a metal required for the manufacture of batteries for electric motor vehicles, is produced by (2023)

1. Argentina
2. Botswana
3. Democratic Republic. of the Congo
4. Kazakhstan

Syllabus

• Prelims –Art and Culture

Context: The Archaeological Survey of India (ASI) recently, launched the revamped ‘Adopt a Heritage 2.0’ programme.

Background:-

• Apart from the programme an Indian Heritage app was also launched.
• The app, provides a comprehensive guide to monuments under ASI’s ambit.
• It lists historical structures along with pictures, public facilities available on site and geo-tagged locations.

About Adopt a Heritage 2.0 programme:-

• Launched: 2023.
• Ministry: Ministry of Culture.
• Implementing Agency: Archaeological Survey of India

Salient Features:-

• Under this programme, the Archeological Survey of India (ASI) invites corporate stakeholders to enhance the amenities at the monuments by utilizing their CSR funds.
• The programme is a revamped version of the earlier scheme launched in 2017. (Need for heritage conservation)
• It clearly defines the amenities sought for different monuments as per the Ancient Monuments and Archaeological Sites and Remains Act or AMASR Act 1958.
• The stakeholders can apply for adopting a monument or specific amenity/ amenities at a monument through a URL indianheritage.gov.in.
• The portal contains the details of monuments sought for adoption dedicated web portal along with gap analysis and financial estimation of amenities.

Selection:-

• The process for selection will be carried out after due diligence and discussions with various stakeholders and assessing the economic and developmental opportunities at each monument.
• The selected stakeholders will develop, provide, and/or maintain amenities in hygiene, accessibility, safety, and knowledge categories. (Indian Institute of Heritage)

Significance:-

• The programme seeks to foster collaboration with corporate stakeholders through which they can contribute to preserving these monuments.

MUST READ: World Heritage Sites Under Threat

SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) With reference to Indian History, Alexander Rea, A. H. Longhurst, Robert Sewell, James Burgess and Walter Elliot were associated with (2023)

1. archaeological excavations
2. establishment of the English Press in colonial India
3. establishment of Churches in Princely States
4. construction of railways in colonial India

Syllabus

• Prelims –Polity

Context: The students of Andhra Pradesh stare at the prospect of losing ‘local quota’ in educational institutions as Article 371 D may not come to their rescue when the validity of the A.P. Reorganisation Act ceases after the 10-year period in May 2024.

Background:-

• The teaching fraternity and the student community fear the prospect of losing the ‘local quota’ in educational institutions in the near future.
• Their fear stems from the fact that the Andhra Pradesh Reorganization Act, which came into force in May 2014, is valid only for 10 years.
• This means that the rules and regulations formulated prior to the bifurcation of Andhra Pradesh will not hold good after May 2024.

About Article 371 D:-

• Article 371 of the Indian Constitution deals with special provisions for eleven states of the Indian Union.
• It is a part of XXI of the Constitution of India, Article 371.

Beneficiary states:-

• This Article ranges from Article 371-A to Article 371-J.
• It gives special provisions for the states of Maharashtra, Gujarat, Nagaland, Assam, Manipur, Andhra Pradesh, Sikkim, Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Goa and Karnataka.
• The main objectives behind Article 371 granting special provisions to some states are:-
  • To meet the unique needs of the backward regions of these states.
  • Protect the economic and cultural interests of these regions.
  • Combat the local challenges and protect the customary laws in these regions.
• Article 371D, gives special provisions for the state of Andhra Pradesh.
• It was added to the Constitution in 1974 by the 32nd Amendment Act, 1973.
• It states that: the president must ensure “equitable opportunities and facilities” in “public employment and education to people from different parts of the state”. He may require the state government to organize “any class or classes of posts in the civil service of, or any class or classes of civil posts under, the State into different local cadres for different parts of the State”. He has similar powers vis-à-vis admissions in educational institutions.

Benefits:-

• It provides equitable opportunities and facilities for the people of the state.
• It safeguards their rights in matters of employment and education. (Domicile-based job quota)
• The state government may organize civil posts or direct recruitment to posts in the local cadre as required.

MUST READ: Asymmetrical federalism

SOURCE: THE HINDU

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider · the following statements in respect of the Constitution Day: (2023)

Statement-I:

Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.

Statement-II:

On 26 November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India· set up a Drafting Committee under the Chairmanship of Dr. B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft of the Constitution of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q.2) If a particular area is brought under the Fifth Schedule of the Constitution of India, which one of the following statements best reflects the consequence of it? (2022)

1. This would prevent the transfer of land from tribal people to non-tribal people.
2. This would create a local self-governing body in that area.
3. This would convert that area into a Union Territory.
4. The State having such areas would be declared a Special Category State.

Syllabus

• Prelims – Economy/ Science and Technology

Context: Recently, the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) launched a slew of new payment options on payment platforms UPI.

Background:-

• Reserve Bank of India (RBI) Governor Shaktikanta Das announced the launch of the products by the National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) at the ongoing Global Fintech Festival in Mumbai.
• The latest offerings are aimed at creating an inclusive, resilient, and sustainable digital payments ecosystem and will help UPI achieve the target of 100 billion transactions per month.

About National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI):-

• Establishment:2008.
• HQ:
• It was established under the provisions of the Payment and Settlement Systems Act, 2007.
• Objective: to create a robust Payment and settlement Infrastructure in India.
• It is an umbrella organization for operating retail payments and settlement systems in India.
• It is an initiative of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA).
• It has been incorporated as a “Not for Profit” Company under the provisions of Section 25 of the Companies Act 1956 (now Section 8 of the Companies Act 2013), with an intention to provide infrastructure to the entire Banking system in India for physical as well as electronic payment and settlement systems.

Important Services Offered by NPCI:-

• Bharat Bill Payment Interface (BBPI): It was developed by the NPCI to help the retail payments sector.
• National Automated Clearing House (NACH): an offline web-based system for bulk push and pull transactions which provides an electronic mandate platform to register mandates facilitating paper paperless collection processes for corporates and banks.
• Immediate Payment Service (IMPS): It gives the option to transfer funds immediately and is available at any given time.
• Aadhaar-enabled Payment System (AePS): It has been introduced to access funds at the doorstep & and drive financial inclusion in India.
• RuPay: It is an affordable card and can be issued as credit cards, debit cards, and prepaid cards. (RuPay Debit Cards and BHIM UPI)
• USSD Services: It was introduced by the NPCI to allow individuals to make banking solutions without the need for the internet or smartphones.
• BHIM: It uses UPI to complete payment transfers. No smartphone is required to transfer funds via BHIM.
• United Payments Interface (UPI): It allows you to transfer funds from your smartphone. Money is transferred directly from one bank to another. (India’s UPI Push)

MUST READ: UPI and NPCI Regulation

SOURCE: AIR

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: (2022)

1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets.
2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain.
3. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021)

1. Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market
2. The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India.
3. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 3 only
4. 2 and 3

Syllabus

• Prelims – Environment and Ecology

Context: Vijayawada Railway Station was certified with a Platinum rating by the Indian Green Building Council (IGBC) recently.

Background:-

• In the recertification process this year, Vijayawada railway station outperformed and immensely improvised its amenities in almost all aspects compared to the 2019 Gold Standard Rating and clinched the Platinum standard IGBC Rating.

About Indian Green Building Council (IGBC):-

• Establishment:2001.
• HQ:
• The Indian Green Building Council (IGBC) is a part of the Confederation of Indian Industry (CII).
• Vision: To enable a sustainable built environment for all and facilitate India to be one of the global leaders in the sustainable built environment by 2025.
• IGBC is India’s Premier certification body.
• It is also among the 5 countries that are on the board of the World Green Building Council, discussing global issues at COP and similar global platforms. (Green Buildings Need & Benefits)
• Green building movement: It is a Pan India movement with over 10,930 projects with a green footprint of over 10.26 billion sq. ft.
• IGBC is working closely with the Government of India on green building projects for more than 1000 projects across the country.
• Today, more than 90% of green buildings in the country are being facilitated by IGBC and more than 3,480 projects are certified & and fully operational.
• IGBC-rated green projects are encouraged by Central and State government incentives in 12 Indian states.
• IGBC is National by Choice and Global in Performance.
• All the stakeholders of the construction industry comprising architects, developers, product manufacturers, corporate, Government, academia and nodal agencies participate in the council activities.
• The council also closely works with several State Governments, the Central Governmethe nt, the World Green Building Council, and bilateral multi-lateral agencies in promoting green building concepts in the country.

Services offered:-

• Developing new green building rating programmes
• Certification services and green building training programmes.
• Organizing Green Building Congress which is an annual flagship event on green buildings.

MUST READ: 12th GRIHA (Green Rating for Integrated Habitat Assessment) Summit

SOURCE: THE NEW INDIAN EXPRESS

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2023)

1. In a seismograph, P waves are recorded earlier than S waves.
2. In P waves, the individual particles vibrate to and fro in the direction of wave propagation whereas in S waves, the particles vibrate up and down at right angles to the direction of wave propagation.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2 

Q.2) Climate Action Tracker” which monitors the emission reduction pledges of different countries is a : (2022)

1. Database created by a coalition of research organizations
2. Wing of “International Panel of Climate Change”
3. Committee under “United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change”
4. Agency promoted and financed by the United Nations Environment Programme and World Bank

Syllabus

• Prelims –Science and Technology

Context: Recent reports suggest, that Comet Nishimura could be visible in September.

Background:-

• As per NASA ‘It seems like a good bet’ that Comet Nishimura could become visible to the naked eye this September (2023).
• Its orbit could bring it on a close approach to Earth on 12, September 2023, when it could be as close as 125 million kilometers away.

About Comet Nishimura:-

IMAGE SOURCE: SlideServe

• Discovered on: August 11, 2023.
• Discovered by: Hideo Nishimura. (Bernardinelli-Bernstein comet)
• It was discovered during 30-second exposures with a standard digital camera.
• Comet Nishimura was imaged from June Lake, California, USA.
  • Comets: Comets are celestial objects composed of frozen gases, dust, and rocks that orbit the Sun.
  • They originate from the early solar system and develop tails when they approach the Sun due to the release of gas and dust.
  • These tails make them visible from Earth.
• It was pictured sporting a green coma and a thin tail.
• It’s expected to brighten to a magnitude of 1.8.
• Its closest approach to us will be on Sep 12 and its perihelion on Sep 17/18.
• The comet is currently located in the constellation Leo.
  • Constellation Leo: A prominent constellation in the night sky, represented by the shape of a lion.
  • It is one of the zodiac constellations and contains various stars and celestial objects.
  • The constellation is visible toward the east-northeastern horizon about 90 minutes before sunrise.
• As the comet approaches the sun, the visitor is also getting closer to the horizon, thus making it more difficult to observe it after this week.
• Since its discovery, C/2023 P1 Nishimura has increased in brightness and its path across the inner Solar System determined.
• As the comet dives toward the Sun, it will surely continue to intensify and possibly become a naked-eye object in early September.
• The comet will also be angularly near the Sun, so it will only be possible to see it near sunset or sunrise.

 MUST READ: Exoplanets

SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023)

1. Australia
2. Canada
3. Israel
4. Japan

Q.2) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022)

1. A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.
2. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.
3. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
4. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface speed.

Syllabus

• Mains – GS 2 (Governance)

Context: The ‘one nation one election’ proposal was mooted yet again by the government.

About ‘One Nation One Election’ system:

• Current system: The country holds separate polls for the Lok Sabha and state Assemblies in a gap of five years, i.e.
  • When the tenure of the Lower House or the state government concludes, or either of them is dissolved prematurely.
• The term of state assemblies may not necessarily be in sync with one another or that of the Lok Sabha.
  • As a result, the mammoth task of conducting elections goes all round the year.
• One Nation One Election proposes that simultaneous elections be held in all states and the Lok Sabha in a gap of five years.
• This would mean that the voters will cast their vote for electing members of the LS and the state assemblies on a single day, at the same time (or in a phased manner as the case may be).

Background of ONOE:

• Simultaneous elections have previously been conducted in India in 1952, 1957, 1962 and 1967.
• Soon after, this norm was discontinued following the dissolution of some Legislative Assemblies between 1968 -69.
• Since then, the Indian Electoral system holds polls to Centre and states separately.

Important articles to be amended to conduct ONOE:

• Article 172 and Article 83 deal with the duration of the Houses of Parliament, and guarantee a five-year term to both the elected Lok Sabha and state assemblies, unless they are dissolved sooner.
• Article 85 of the Indian Constitution deals with the powers of the President to summon Parliamentary sessions, not exceeding a gap of more than six months.
  • The President also carries the power to adjourn either House of the Parliament and the dissolution of the Lok Sabha.
• Article 356 of the Indian Constitution, comes into action in case of governance and constitutional failure in a state and deals with the President’ Rule.
• Amendments in the People’s Representation Act, 1951(RPA Act 1951) and the Anti Defection Law must be made for organised conduct and stability in both Lok Sabha and state assemblies.

Arguments in favour of ONOE:

• Reduction of Financial burden on state exchequer: Continuous election cycles are a financial burden on the state exchequer.
  • ONOE will reduce the overall expenditure on political process by ECI.
• Focus on governance instead of being in ‘election mode’: One nation one election” will ensure continuity of policies and programmes of the central and state governments.
  • It will reduce disruption of normal public life as political rallies will be kept to a minimum.
  • It will improve the delivery of essential services to public.
• Better utilisation of financial resources by political parties: Simultaneous elections will reduce the campaign expenditure of political parties and the candidates.
  • This will help smaller regional parties in better management of financial resources.
• Reduced duration of ‘model code of conduct: Frequent imposition of the Model Code of Conduct (MCC) during polls stalls all development work for months at a time.
  • It will reduce ‘policy paralysis’ that results from the imposition of the Model Code of Conduct during election time.
• Increase of administrative efficiency: During elections the entire state machinery focuses on conducting a free and fair electoral process which impacts the everyday administration because officials are engaged in polling duties.
  • ONOE will increase efficiency of administrative system.
• Increase of voter turnout-: According to the Law Commission, ONOE will increase voter turnout because it will be easier for people to cast many votes all at once.
• Reduced use of black money: Elections involve considerable expenditure by prospective candidates most of which is black money.
  • ONOE will reduce the circulation of black money in economy.
• Improvement in social harmony: Frequent elections perpetuate caste, religion, and communal issues across the country as elections are polarising events that have accentuated casteism, communalism, and corruption.
  • ONOE would reduce the fault lines between communities created due to multiple elections.

Arguments against ONOE:

• Only states are contesting: ‘India’ does not have an election every year, one of India’s States does.
  • So, when there are elections in a few States, ‘India’ is not in an election mode; some of India’s States are.
  • All of India’s major political parties are not in an election mode, only some are.
• Against India’s federalism: Each of India’s States has different political cultures and parties.
  • An elected Chief Minister of a State has the powers to recommend dissolution of their State legislatures and call for early elections.
  • Under a ‘one election’ framework, state parties will not have the right to do this.
  • These powers will be taken away from the States and only the Union government will have the powers to dictate the election schedule for every State.
• Increase in cost: In the short term, simultaneous elections will increase the costs for deploying far larger numbers of electronic voting machines and control units.
  • Political parties and candidates may spend a lot more money on elections than the government but that is not the tax-payers’ money.
  • On the contrary, there is economic research to suggest that such election spending by parties and candidates actually benefits the economy and the government’s tax revenues by boosting private consumption and serving as a stimulus.
• Works for presidential system: A single election calendar may work in a presidential system where the survival of the executive is not dependent upon a legislative majority.
• Unworkable and unfeasible: ‘One nation one election’ is a politically unfeasible, administratively unworkable and constitutionally unviable proposition.

Way Forward:

The concept of ‘One India One Election’ holds promise as a positive change, provided it is executed with meticulous attention to policies and regulations. Addressing the growing demand for skilled administrative staff and heightened security is crucial. Forming a dedicated group consisting of constitutional experts, think tanks, government officials, and political party representatives is essential to working out the intricate details of implementation.

Source: Indian Express

Syllabus

• Mains – GS 3 (Environment)

Context: Recently Mexico’s ‘Maya train’ project has been criticised as a “megaproject of death” causing an ecological disaster in the region.

• The Tribunal for the Rights of Nature said the project caused “crimes of ecocide and ethnocide”.

About Ecocide:

• It is defined as “as unlawful or wanton acts committed with knowledge that there is a substantial likelihood of severe and either widespread or long-term damage to the environment being caused by those acts”.
• Commonly cited examples include:
  • Deforestation during the Vietnam War,
  • The destruction of the environment during the Russian invasion of Ukraine, deforestation in Indonesia and the Amazon rainforest,
  • Oil pollution in the Niger Delta and the Chernobyl disaster.
• The term was popularised by Olof Palme when he accused the United States of ecocide at the 1972 UN Conference on the Human Environment.
• There is no international law against ecocide that applies in peacetime, but the Rome Statute makes it a crime.
• The Rome Statute of the International Criminal Court (ICC) deals with four atrocities: genocide, crimes against humanity, war crimes, and the crime of aggression.
  • The provision on war crimes is the only statute that can hold a perpetrator responsible for environmental damage, but only if it is intentional and in wartime.

Ecocide – a crime:

• Ecocide is a crime in 11 countries, with 27 others considering laws to criminalise environmental damage that is wilfully caused and harms humans, animals, and plants.
• The European Parliament voted unanimously this year to enshrine ecocide in law.
• Most national definitions penalise “mass destruction of flora and fauna”, “poisoning the atmosphere or water resources” or “deliberate actions capable of causing an ecological disaster.”
• The ICC and Ukraine’s public prosecutor are also investigating Russia’s role in the collapse of the Nova Kakhovka dam, which unleashed a flood that drowned 40 regions, and released oils and toxic fluids into the Black Sea.

Significant evidences to consider ecocide as a crime:

• Over a third of the earth’s animal and plant species could be extinct by 2050.
  • Unprecedented heat waves have broken records worldwide.
  • Changing rainfall schemes have disrupted flood and drought patterns.
• Deforestation of the Amazon, deep-sea trawling or even the catastrophic 1984 Bhopal gas disaster could have been avoided with ecocide laws in place.
• Ecocide laws could also double up as calls for justice for low- and middle-income countries disproportionately affected by climate change.

Limitations in defining ecocide as a crime:

• Varied arguments: Regarding the need for a separate law and the definition of ‘ecocide’.
• Ambiguous definition: Words like “long-term” or “widespread damage” are abstract and leave room for misinterpretation.
• Complexity: This constructs a development-versus-environment narrative, with the implication that it is okay to destroy the environment as long as it benefits humans.
  • Great Nicobar Project is criticised for endangering indigenous communities and biodiversity. But the government claims the Project is in service of holistic development.
• Threshold– In 1940 genocide requires proof on two accounts
  • Mens rea (an intention to kill) and
  • Actus reus (a guilty act) — to prove a crime was committed.
  • It creates confusion as some argue that environmental disasters are not caused intentionally or deliberately.
• Limited power to ICC: ICC has a low track record when it comes to converting prosecutions into convictions.
  • The court’s power is limited to “natural persons,” and without any changes, ICC would be unable to hold corporate entities criminally liable.

India and Ecocide:

• Chandra CFS and Terminal Operators Pvt. Ltd. v. The Commissioner of Customs and Ors (2015) case: The Madras High Court noted “the prohibitory activities of ecocide has been continuing unbridled by certain sections of people by removing the valuable and precious timbers”.
• N. Godavarman Thirumulpad vs Union of India & Ors: The Supreme Court called attention to an “anthropogenic bias” and argued that “environmental justice could be achieved only if we drift away from the principle of anthropocentric to ecocentric”.
• India’s legislative framework vis-à-vis environmental and ecological governance includes:
  • The Environmental (Protection) Act 1986,
  • The Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972, and
  • The Compensatory Afforestation Fund Act (CAMPA) 2016, as well as separate Rules to prevent air and water pollution.
• The National Green Tribunal, India’s apex environmental statutory body, does not have the jurisdiction to hear matters related to
  • The Wildlife (Protection) Act 1972,
  • The Indian Forest Act 1927, and
  • Other State-enacted laws.
• Indian laws are themselves in a state of conflict: The Parliament passed the controversial Forest Conservation (Amendment) Bill 2023 and Biodiversity (Amendment) Bill 2023, which experts have said will dilute current legal protections and will lead to the loss of 20-25% of forest area in the country and the attendant biodiversity and ecosystem issues.

Way Forward:

Therefore an ecocide law should be a part of the broader process of changing public consciousness, recognising that we are in a relationship with our environment, we are dependent for our well-being on the wellbeing of the environment. India needs to first bring its environmental laws in tune with ecocide idea before the ecocide laws come up internationally.

Source:  The Hindu

Q1) Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Q2) Consider the following statements

Statement-I:

National Payments Corporation of India (NPCI) was established in 2009.

Statement-II:

It is an initiative of the Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Indian Banks’ Association (IBA).

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q3) With reference to the Article 371D, consider the following statements:

1. It was added to the Constitution in 1974 by the 22nd Amendment Act, of 1973.
2. It safeguards rights in matters of employment and education.
3. It gives special provisions for the state of Arunachal Pradesh.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None 

Mains Practice Questions

Q.1) Analyse the historical background of the “One Nation One Election” concept in India. Highlight the key advantages it offers and the legal challenges associated with its implementation. Suggest measures to address these challenges? (250 words)

Q.2) What do you mean by ecocide? Elucidate the implications of making it a crime on environmental protection and corporate accountability. (250 words)

Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!!

ANSWERS FOR ’  7th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st

Q.1) – a

Q.2) – c

Q.3) – a