DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 22nd November 2023

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  • November 22, 2023
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World Television Day

Syllabus

  • Prelims –IMPORTANT DAYS

Context: Recently, World Television Day was globally observed.

Background:-

  • World Television Day is globally observed today to highlight the importance of visual media and to recognize its increasing impact on decision-making and potential role in shaping global conversations.

About World Television Day:-

  • Date: 21st   November
  • Theme for 2023: ‘Accessibility’.

Historical Background:-

  • On this day in 1996, the United Nations held the First World Television Forum and decided to observe 21st November every year as World Television Day.
  • TV was invented by a Scottish engineer, John Logie Baird in 1924.

TV in India:-

  • It was introduced in India on 15th September 1959 in New Delhi with the assistance of the United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).
  • Daily transmission began in 1965 as a part of Akashvani.
  • National telecast was introduced in 1982 and in the same year, colour television was introduced in the Indian market.
  • During this time, there was only one national channel, the government-owned
  • ‘Krishi Darshan’ was telecast in 1967 as the first and Indian television’s longest-running programme.
  • ‘Ramayana’ and ‘Mahabharata’ were the first major television series produced.
  • Other shows like ‘Hum Log’, ‘Wagle Ki Duniya’ and ‘Buniyaad’ were also popular.
  • The invention of television revolutionised the way we communicate and consume information.
  • On this day, meet-ups at local and global levels take place to raise awareness among people about the role television plays in communication and globalization. (Broadcasting Infrastructure and Network Development (BIND) scheme)

Significance:-

  • This day also marks the commitment of governments, news organizations and individuals to deliver unbiased information in times when the authenticity of content on social media platforms is questionable.

MUST READ: On regulation of Digital media (Sudarshan TV Case)

SOURCE: AIR

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Which of the following statements is/are correct regarding the Maternity Benefit Amendment Act, 2017? (2019)

  1. Pregnant women are entitled to three months of pre-delivery and three months of post-delivery paid leave.
  2. Enterprises with creches must allow the mother a minimum of six creche visits daily.
  3. Women with two children get reduced entitlements.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) With reference to the ‘stand up India scheme’, which of the following statements is/are correct? (2016)

  1. Its purpose is to promote entrepreneurship among SC/ST and women entrepreneurs.
  2. It provides for refinancing through SIDBI.

Select the correct answer using the code given below.

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

54th International Film Festival of India

Syllabus

  • Prelims – AWARDS

Context: Recently, Veteran Hollywood actor & producer Michael Douglas addressed a Masterclass at the 54th International Film Festival of India in Goa.

Background:-

  • The legendary American actor will also be honoured with the Satyajit Ray Lifetime Achievement Award at the closing ceremony of IFFI on the same day.

About the 54th International Film Festival of India:-

  • Date: 20th to 28th of November.
  • Venue: Goa.
  • Organized by: National Film Development Corporation of India Ltd (NFDC).
  • Ministry: Ministry of Information and Broadcasting.

Historical Background:-

  • Since 1952, India has hosted 53 International Film Festival of India (IFFI) both competitive and non-competitive.
  • The festival became an annual event from 1975 onwards.
  • The 54th edition of the festival, which includes a competition for feature films by Directors from all Continents will be held in Goa.
  • Government of India in collaboration with the State Government of Goa and the Indian Film Industry.
  • The Festival is recognized by the International Federation of Film Producers Associations (FIAPF) as a Competitive Feature Film Festival.

Objectives:-

  • providing a common platform for filmmakers of the world to project their excellence in film art.
  • contributing to the understanding and appreciation of film cultures of different nations in the context of their social and cultural ethos
  • promoting friendship and co-operation among people of the world.

Categories:-

The festival programme is broadly divided into the following categories: –

  • International Competition for Feature Films (up to 15 numbers. Up to three Indian Films will be selected for this section. Fiction Films with a minimum duration of 70 minutes and above).
  • Non-Competition (World Panorama) – for feature films from around the world ( Films with a minimum duration of 70 minutes and above).
  • Country Focus & other specially curated packages (Indian & Foreign) and Special Screenings/Gala Premieres.
  • Indian Panorama – for Indian feature films, Indian Panorama Regulations 2023 will be applicable.
  • Technical Workshops/Masterclasses/other Interactive and academic Sessions/Panel Discussions/Talent Hub etc. both virtual and physical.
  • Film Bazaar: IFFI also hosts the Film Bazaar, South Asia’s largest and One of Asia’s most prolific Film Markets showcasing rich content to potential buyers from different countries across the world.
  • National Film Development Corporation Ltd (NFDC) reserves the right to exclude films that are not in conformity with the philosophy and objective of the festival, which could offend the feelings/susceptibilities of any participating country, or are likely to promote discrimination of any kind.

Awards & Prizes:-

  • Best Film: A Cash prize of Rs. 40,00,000/- to be shared equally between the Director and Producer. (The urgent need for CBFC reforms)
    • Director to be given the Golden Peacock and a Certificate in addition to the cash component.
    • Producer to be given a Certificate in addition to the cash component.
  • Best Director: Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs.15,00,000/-
  • Best Actor (Male): Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs. 10,00,000/-
  • Best Actor (Female): Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs. 10,00,000/-
  • Special Jury Award: Silver Peacock, Certificate and a cash prize of Rs. 15,00,000/- given to a film (for any aspect of the film which the jury wishes to award/acknowledge) or an individual (for his/her artistic contribution to a film). The award, if given to a film, will be given to the Director of the film.
    • Award for Best Debut Feature Film of a Director.
  • Satyajit Ray Lifetime Achievement Award for Excellence in Cinema
    • This prestigious award, instituted in the name of legendry filmmaker Satyajit Ray, consisting of a cash prize of Rs. 10,00,000/-, certificate, shawl, Medal (Silver Peacock) and a scroll, is conferred upon a master filmmaker/film technician/film personalities for his / her outstanding contribution to cinema.
  • Indian Film Personality of the Year Award
    • This prestigious award consisting of a cash prize of Rs 10, 00,000/-, certificate, shawl and Medal (Silver Peacock) is conferred upon an Indian film personality for his/her outstanding contribution to Indian Cinema.
  • ICFT UNESCO – Gandhi Medal Award
    • The Gandhi Medal Award is given to a film reflecting UNESCO’s fundamental mandate of building peace in the minds of men and women, particularly human rights.

MUST READ: Golden Globes Award

SOURCE: AIR

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023)

  1. It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India.
  2. The official mascot was named Thambi.
  3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
  4. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. Only three
  4. All four

Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 32nd Summer Olympics: (2021)

  1. The official motto for this Olympics is ‘A New World’.
  2. Sports climbing, Surfing, Skateboarding, Karate, and Baseball are included in this.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Dr SS Badrinath

Syllabus

  • Prelims –IMPORTANT PERSONALITIES

Context: Recently, PM, condoles the death of Sankara Nethralaya founder Dr SS Badrinath.

Background:-

  • The founder of Sankara Netralaya Dr.S.S Badrinath passed away in Chennai.

About Dr SS Badrinath:-

  • He was the founder of Sankara Netralaya.
  • He was 83 due to illness.
  • Born on February,24,1940.
  • S.S. Badrinath graduated from Madras Medical College in 1962.
  • He pursued his post-graduation in the United States.
  • After returning to India in 1970, he worked with the Voluntary Health Services in Adyar.
  • He was closely associated with the Sankara Mutt as he performed cataract surgery on his spiritual guru Chandrasekara Saraswathi Swamigal.
  • He founded the Sankara Nethralaya as a unit of the Medical Research Foundation in 1978.
  • The institution which he founded has become iconic, a symbol of the progress of modern medicine.

Achievements:-

  • He was a recipient of:-

MUST READ: Padma awardee Shanti Devi

SOURCE: THE NEW INDIAN EXPRESS

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy : (2023)

  1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women.
  2. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth.
  3. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
  4. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. Only three
  4. All four

Q.2) Consider the following statements about Particularly Vulnerable Tribal Groups (PVTGs) in India: (2019)

  1. PVTGs reside in 18 States and one Union Territory.
  2. A stagnant or declining population is one of the criteria for determining PVTG status.
  3. There are 95 PVTGs officially notified in the country so far.
  4. Irular and Konda Reddi tribes are included in the list of PVTGs.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

  1. 1, 2 and 3
  2. 2, 3 and 4
  3. 1, 2 and 4
  4. 1, 3 and 4

Enforcement Directorate (ED)

Syllabus

  • Prelims –ECONOMY

Context: Recently, the Enforcement Directorate (ED) seized over 751 crore rupees in assets in the National Herald money laundering case.

Background:-

  • In a social media post, the agency said, the investigation revealed that Associated Journals Ltd. (AJL) is in possession of proceeds of crime in the form of immovable properties spread across many cities of India such as Delhi, Mumbai, and Lucknow the tune of 661.69 crore rupees.

About ED:-

  • The Enforcement Directorate is a multi-disciplinary organization founded in 1956.
  • It is a law enforcement organization tasked with enforcing economic laws and combating economic crime in India, such as money laundering and foreign exchange irregularities.
  • It works under the Department of Revenue, Ministry of Finance.
  • Headquarters: New Delhi
  • The functions of the Directorate include the enforcement of the following Acts:-
    • The Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA) (Prevention of Money Laundering Act (PMLA) 2002)
    • The Foreign Exchange Management Act, 1999 (FEMA): A civil law under which ED conducts an investigation into suspected contraventions of foreign exchange laws and regulations. ( Foreign Exchange Management Act)
    • The Foreign Exchange Regulation Act 1973
    • Sponsoring Organizations under the 1974 Foreign Exchange Conservation and Smuggling Activity Prevention Act
    • The Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 (FEOA): A law whereby the Directorate is mandated to attach the properties of fugitive economic offenders who have escaped from India warranting arrest and providing for the confiscation of their properties to the Central Government. (Fugitive Economic Offenders)
  • Director of Enforcement:-
    • Appointed by the central government on the recommendation of a committee chaired by the Central Vigilance Commissioner and members comprising of Vigilance Commissioners, Home Secretary, Secretary DOPT and Revenue Secretary.
    • Tenure: up to 5 years.
  • Recruitment of other officers:-
    • Other officers may be recruited directly from other investigative agencies or indirectly.
    • It is made up of representatives from the police, excise, customs, and income tax departments of the Indian Revenue Services (IRS), the Indian Police Services (IPS), and the Indian Administrative Services (IAS).

MUST READ: CBI and ED

SOURCE: AIR

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022)

  1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India.
  2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
  3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) With reference to the ‘Banks Board Bureau (BBB)’, which of the following statements is correct? (2022)

  1. The Governor of RBI is the Chairman of BBB.
  2. BBB recommends the selection of heads for Public Sector Banks.
  3. BBB helps the Public Sector Banks develop strategies and capital raising plans.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

G-20 summit

Syllabus

  • Prelims – INTERNATIONAL ORGANIZATIONS

Context: Prime Minister Narendra Modi to chair the concluding G-20 summit-2023 virtually soon.

Background:-

  • The Virtual G20 Summit is going to be held today under the chairmanship of Prime Minister Narendra Modi.
  • Briefing media on the Summit, G20 Sherpa Amitabh Kant said this will be the second time that the Prime Minister will be hosting the Leaders of the G20 in a span of two and a half months.
  • India holds the G20 Presidency until the 30th of November, 2023.
  • The G20 Troika during the Brazilian G20 Presidency in 2024 will comprise India, Brazil, and South Africa.

About G-20 summit:-

  • Establishment: 1999. ( G20)
  • Historical Background: The G20 forum was established by the finance ministers and central bank governors of seven countries – Canada, France, Germany, Italy, Japan, the U.K., and the U.S. after a meeting in Washington DC.
  • Members: Argentina, Australia, Brazil, Canada, China, France, Germany, India, Indonesia, Italy, Japan, the Republic of Korea, Mexico, Russia, Saudi Arabia, South Africa, Turkey, the U.K., the U.S. and the European Union.
  • Presidency of the G20: it rotates every year among members.
    • The country holding the presidency, together with the previous and next presidency-holder, forms the ‘Troika’.
    • India assumed the presidency of the G20 grouping from Indonesia, in 2022 and will hold the post for a year.
    • During India’s presidency, India, Indonesia and Brazil will form the troika.
  • The G20 does not have a permanent secretariat or Headquarters.

MUST READ: India and G20 Presidency

SOURCE: AIR

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements about G-20: (2023)

  1. The G-20 group was originally established as a platform for the Finance Ministers and Central Bank Governors to discuss the
  2. International economic and financial issues.
  3. Digital public infrastructure is one of India’s G-20 priorities.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) The ‘Fortaleza Declaration’ recently in the news, is related to the affairs of: (2015)

  1. ASEAN
  2. BRICS
  3. OECD
  4. WTO

Zika

Syllabus

  • Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

Context: Recently, a 64-year-old woman in Pune was found to be infected with Zika.

Background:-

  • A 64-year-old woman in the Yerawada area of Pune has been found to be infected with Zika, a mosquito-borne disease.
  • Co-director of the Epidemiology Department Dr. Pratap Singh Saranikar met the patient and instructed her regarding taking care of her health.

About Zika:-

IMAGE SOURCE: share.upmc.com

  • The Zika virus is a mosquito-borne flavivirus.
  • It was first identified in Uganda in 1947 in monkeys.
  • It was later identified in humans in 1952 in Uganda and the United Republic of Tanzania.
  • Most infections in humans are asymptomatic or with mild symptoms, including fever, rash, and joint pain.

Transmission:-

  • It is primarily transmitted to humans through the bite of infected Aedes mosquitoes, particularly Aedes aegypti and Aedes albopictus.
  • It can also spread through sexual contact, blood transfusion, and from an infected mother to her baby during pregnancy or childbirth.
  • The Zika virus became notorious during the 2015-2018 outbreak that swept through the Americas.
  • The outbreak was characterized by an alarming increase in the number of microcephaly cases in newborns, prompting the World Health Organization to declare it a public health emergency of international concern in early 2016.

Treatment:-

  • There is no vaccine or medicine for Zika.

Instead, the focus is on relieving symptoms and includes rest, rehydration and acetaminophen for fever and pain.

MUST READ: Controlling Dengue Using Wolbachia Bacteria

SOURCE: AIR

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following: (2022)

  1. Aarogya Setu
  2. COWIN
  3. DigiLocker
  4. DIKSHA

Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. 1, 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

 Q.2) In the context of vaccines manufactured to prevent the COVID-19 pandemic, consider the following statements: (2022)

  1. The Serum Institute of India produced a COVID-19 vaccine named Covishield using an mRNA platform.
  2. The Sputnik V vaccine is manufactured using a vector-based platform.
  3. COVAXIN is an inactivated pathogen-based vaccine.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Practice MCQs

Daily Practice MCQs

Q1) Consider the following pairs:

Organizations Headquarters
United Nations Population Fund (UNFPA) Brussels, Belgium
North Atlantic Treaty Organization (NATO) New York, USA
Organization of Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) Vienna, Austria

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All three
  4. None

Q2) Consider the following statements

Statement-I :

The G20 does not have a permanent secretariat or Headquarters.

Statement-II :

During India’s presidency, India, Indonesia and Brazil will form the troika.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
  2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
  3. Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q3) With reference to Zika, consider the following statements:

  1. The Zika virus is a mosquito-borne flavivirus.
  2. It was first identified in India in 1947 in monkeys.
  3. Most infections in humans are asymptomatic or with mild symptoms, including fever, rash, and joint pain.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 3 only

Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!!

ANSWERS FOR ’  22nd November 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st


ANSWERS FOR 21st November – Daily Practice MCQs

Answers- Daily Practice MCQs

Q.1) – a

Q.2) – d

Q.3) – c

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