Syllabus

• Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

Context: Recently, ‘Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve’ became Madhya Pradesh’s 7th protected habitat for big cats.

About Veerangana Durgavati Tiger Reserve:-

• Location: Damoh and Narsinghpur districts of Madhya Pradesh.
• Area: 2,339 square kilometers.
• Naming: It is named after Rani Durgavati, a queen of the Gondi people.
• Rivers: Some areas of the reserve are situated in the Narmada and Yamuna River basins.
• Culture: The Singorgarh Fort can be found inside the reserve.
• Vegetation: Dry deciduous type.
• Flora: The chief floral elements include Teak, Saja, Dhaora, Ber, Amla, etc.

Fauna:-

• The sanctuary provides a habitat for a wide variety of mammals, totaling 18 different species. (Global Conservation Assured|Tiger Standards (CA|TS))
• These include notable creatures such as leopard, wolf, the elusive jackal, the swift Indian fox, the fascinating striped hyena, and the adorable sloth bear.
• In addition to these captivating mammals, the sanctuary also serves as a residence for many species of birds, fish, reptiles, and amphibians.

Significance: –

• It is the seventh tiger reserve in Madhya Pradesh. (Importance of Tiger Conservation)
• It will encompass areas within the Nauradehi Wildlife Sanctuary and Durgavati Wildlife Sanctuary.
• A green corridor linking Panna Tiger Reserve (PTR) with Durgavati will be developed for the natural movement of the tiger to the new reserve.

MUST READ: Buddhist caves, temples in Madhya Pradesh’s Bandhavgarh Tiger Reserve

SOURCE: THE HINDU

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements? (2018)

1. The definition of “Critical Wildlife Habitat” is incorporated in the Forest Rights Act 2006.
2. For the first time in India, Baigas have been given habitat rights.
3. The Union Ministry of Environment Forest and Climate Change officially decides and declares Habitat Rights for Primitive and Vulnerable Tribal Groups in any part of India.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) The term M-STrIPES’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of (2017)

1. Captive breeding of Wild Fauna
2. Maintenance of Tiger Reservoirs
3. Indigenous Satellite Navigation System
4. Security of National Highways

Syllabus

• Prelims –ECONOMY

Context: India will be included in the JPM GBI-EM Global Diversified Index as of  June 2024.

Background:-

• JP Morgan Chase & Co has announced that it will include Indian government bonds in its emerging markets bond index from 28 June 2024.
• The move can potentially attract about $25 billion into the country, as per analyst estimates.
• Its ultimate weight will likely reach the 10% cap, which will be scaled in at 1% per month.
• The inclusion will be phased over 10 months till March 31, 2025.

Implications of the move:-

• Currently, foreign investors own two percent of Indian debt, a number which could more than double after the next inclusion.
• Indian bonds are expected to account for ten percent of the index once included.
• The inclusion would result in index tracking managers allocating money to India, which is expected to be in tens of billions of dollars.
• This could be a push factor to prompt foreign inflows into India and foreign investors are likely to be more active in the Indian fixed-income market.
• Experts believe the move is likely to bring down the cost of borrowing for the government.
• It will support the Indian rupee and bond markets, and improve the country’s credit rating.

About JPM GBI-EM Global Diversified Index:-

• The Government Bond Index-Emerging Markets (GBI-EM) is a widely tracked index in the global financial market.
• It comprises government bonds issued by emerging market countries. (Government bonds for NRIs)
• These countries can differ significantly in terms of their economic development, creditworthiness, and the size of their bond markets.
• Investment decisions and portfolio allocations in the emerging market debt space are often guided by this index.
• The index is maintained by prominent financial institutions, including JPMorgan.
• The J.P. Morgan ESG EMBI Global Diversified Investment Grade Index (JESG EMBI IG) tracks liquid, US Dollar emerging market fixed and floating-rate debt instruments issued by sovereign and quasi-sovereign entities.
• The index applies an ESG scoring and screening methodology to tilt toward issuers ranked higher on ESG criteria and green bond issues, and to underweight and remove issuers that rank lower.

• The JESG EMBI IG is based on the established flagship J.P. Morgan EMBI.
• Global Diversified Index tracks instruments that are classified as investment grade (IG).
• The GBI-EM index is not static, it undergoes periodic updates.
• These updates ensure that the index remains relevant and up-to-date.

Significance:-

• It plays a crucial role in shaping international capital flows.
• It serves as a benchmark for global investors to assess the performance of these bonds.

Benefits:-

• Access to Global Capital.
• Boost to International Capital Markets.
• Increased Investor Confidence. (Bond Yields)
• Diversification of Funding Sources.

Challenges:-

• Outflows from Other Countries.
• Currency Risk Management.
• Taxation Policies.

MUST READ: Green Bonds

SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Convertible Bonds, consider the following statements (2022)

1. As there is an option to exchange the bond for equity, Convertible Bonds pay a lower rate of interest.
2. The option to convert to equity affords the bondholder a degree of indexation to rising consumer prices.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021)

1. Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market
2. The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India.
3. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 3 only
4. 2 and 3

Syllabus

• Prelims – GOVERNANCE

Context: The Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation has introduced a Unified Registration Portal for GOBARdhan recently.

About Unified Registration Portal for GOBARdhan:-

IMAGE SOURCE: nic.in

• Launched: 2023.
• Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti.
• Objective: to streamline the registration of Compressed Bio-Gas and biogas plants nationwide.
• The portal is gobardhan.co.in
• This portal acts as a data repository for different activities of Gobardhan.
• It enables monitoring of the progress of the Programme.
• It provides real-time tracking, ensuring transparency & and social accountability of the scheme.
• According to the guidelines, Market Development Assistance of 1500 rupees per metric tonne will be granted for the sale of Fermented Organic Manure or Liquid Fermented Organic Manure, or phosphate-rich organic Manure produced at biogas and compressed biogas plants under the GOBARdhan initiative.
• Eligibility:-
• Anyone who operates or intends to set up a biogas/ CBG/ Bio CNG plant in India can obtain a registration number by registering in this unified registration portal.
  • The registration number is required to avail of benefits/ support from other Ministries/ Departments.
• Significance: The GOBARdhan initiative will get a boost as these new guidelines will turbocharge the uptake of organic fertilizer produced from the plants.

 About GOBAR-Dhan Scheme:

• Launched: 2018.
• Ministry: Ministry of Jal Shakti.
• Objective: to augment the income of farmers by converting biodegradable waste into compressed biogas (CBG).
• Galvanizing Organic Bio-Agro Resources (GOBAR)-Dhan was launched by the Government of India as a part of the biodegradable waste management component under the Swachh Bharat Mission-Gramin.
• It covers the entire gamut of schemes/programmes/policies promoting the conversion of organic waste like cattle dung/ agri-residue etc. to biogas/ CBG/ Bio CNG.
• The Department of Drinking Water and Sanitation, Ministry of Jal Shakti is the coordinating department for GOBARdhan.
• Focus areas of GOBAR-Dhan: to keep villages clean, increase the income of rural households, and generate energy and organic manure from cattle waste.

MUST READ: One District One Product(ODOP)

SOURCE: AIR

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) With reference to organic farming in India, consider the following statements (2018)

1. The National Programme for Organic Production (NPOP) is operated under the guidelines and ‘directions of the Union Ministry of Rural Development.
2. ‘The Agricultural and Processed Food Product Export Development Authority ‘(APEDA) functions as the Secretariat for the implementation of NPOP.
3. Sikkim has become India’s first fully organic State.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) Consider the following statements: The nationwide ‘Soil Health Card Scheme’ aims at (2017)

1. expanding the cultivable area under irrigation.
2. enabling the banks to assess the quantum of loans to be granted to farmers on the basis of soil quality.
3. checking the overuse of fertilizers in farmlands.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Syllabus

• Prelims –IMPORTANT AWARDS

Context: Indian agriculture scientist Swati Nayak won the Borlaug Award recently.

Background:-

• Fondly called “Bihana Didi” (Seed Lady) by local communities in Odisha, Indian agriculture scientist Swati Nayak became the third Indian agriculture scientist to win the prestigious Norman E. Borlaug Award for 2023.
• She received the award for introducing drought-tolerant rice in Odisha.

Contribution of Swati Nayak’s work:-

• She is the South Asia head for Seed System and Product Management at the International Rice Research Institute (IRRI).
• Her work has been on “technology scaling” or closing the gap between scientific knowledge and its practical application among farmers.
• She is credited with the successful dissemination and adoption of more than 20 climate-resilient and bio-fortified rice varieties.
• Among these are ‘Sahbhagi Dhan’, a drought-tolerant variety suitable for hilly uplands, and ‘BINA Dhan-11’, which is flood-tolerant.
  • She introduced ‘Sahbhagi Dhan’ in the tribal belt of Odisha’s Mayurbhanj district with the help of women farmers. ‘Sahbhagi Dhan’ has become a much in-demand variety throughout Odisha.
• ‘BINA-Dhan-11’, which contains a submergence-tolerant Sub1 gene identified from an indigenous land race of Odisha, was a similar success.
• The Sub1 gene has been incorporated into many existing popular high-yielding varieties such as ‘Samba Mahsuri’, ‘Swarna’, and ‘Ranjit’.

About Borlaug Award:-

• Duration: It is presented every year in October.
• Venue: Des Moines, Iowa, USA.
• Presented by: World Food Prize Foundation.
• It is endowed by the Rockefeller Foundation.
• The award is given to exceptional scientists under 40 working in the field of food and nutrition security, and hunger eradication.
• It is given in memory of the Nobel awardee and Green Revolution’s chief architect Dr. Norman Borlaug.
• Norman Ernest Borlaug: an American agronomist who led initiatives worldwide that contributed to the extensive increases in agricultural production termed the Green Revolution.
  • Borlaug was often called “the father of the Green Revolution”.

Decoration:-

• The award diploma incorporates the image of Dr. Borlaug at work in the fields of Mexico.
• Cash prize of $10,000.

Other Indian recipients:-

• Aditi Mukherji (2012) and
• Mahalingam Govindaraj (2022).

MUST READ: Gandhi Mandela Award

SOURCE: BUSINESSLINE

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023)

1. It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India.
2. The official mascot was named Thambi.
3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
4. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards. (2021)

1. Bharat Ratna and Padma Awards are titled under Article 18(1) of the Constitution of India.
2. Padma Awards, which were instituted in the year 1954, were suspended only once.
3. The number of Bharat Ratna Awards is restricted to a maximum of five in a particular year.

Which of the above statements is not correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Syllabus

• Prelims – ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

Context: The World Rhino Day 2023 was celebrated recently.

Background:-

• The World Rhino Day is observed on 22nd September every year.

About World Rhino Day 2023:-

• Date: 22th September.
• Objective: to spread awareness for all five species of rhino and the work being done to save them.
• Historical Background: It was first announced by WWF-South Africa in 2010.
• This special day provides the opportunity for cause-related organizations, NGOs, zoos, and members of the public to celebrate rhinos in their own unique ways.
• The scientific name and conservation status of the five species are: –
  • Javan Rhinos (Rhinoceros sondaicus): Critically Endangered
  • Sumatran rhinos (Dicerorhinus sumatrensis): Critically Endangered
  • Black rhinos (Diceros bicornis): Critically Endangered
  • White rhinos (Ceratotherium simum): Near Threatened (Southern white rhino)
  • Greater One-Horned Rhinos (Rhinoceros unicornis): Vulnerable

About Indian One-Horned Rhino:-

• The greater one-horned rhino (or “Indian rhino”) is the largest of the rhino species.
• Distribution: Nepal, Bhutan, Pakistan, and Assam, India.
• The greater one-horned rhino is identified by a single black horn about 8-25 inches long and a grey-brown hide with skin folds, which gives it an armour-plated appearance.
• The species is solitary, except when adult males or rhinos nearing adulthood gather at wallows or to graze.
• Food: They primarily graze, with a diet consisting almost entirely of grasses as well as leaves, branches of shrubs and trees, fruit, and aquatic plants.
• Conservation Status:-
  • IUCN Red List: Vulnerable.
  • CITES: Appendix-I.
  • Wildlife Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I.
• Threats:-
  • Poaching for the horns
  • Habitat loss
  • Population density
  • Decreasing Genetic diversity

Conservation Efforts by India:-

• New Delhi Declaration on Asian Rhinos 2019: India, Bhutan, Nepal, Indonesia, and Malaysia have signed a declaration for the conservation and protection of the species.
• DNA profiles of all rhinos.
• National Rhino Conservation Strategy: It was launched in 2019 to conserve the greater one-horned rhinoceros.
• Indian Rhino Vision 2020: It was an ambitious effort to attain a wild population of at least 3,000 greater one-horned rhinos spread over seven protected areas in the Indian state of Assam by the year 2020.

MUST READ: Rhino population up by 200 in Kaziranga

SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) With reference to Indian laws about wildlife protection, consider the following statements : (2022)

1. Wild animals are the sole property of the government.
2. When a wild animal is declared protected, such animal is entitled to equal protection whether it is found in protected areas or outside.
3. Apprehension of a protected wild animal becoming a danger to human life is sufficient ground for its capture or killing.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only

Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2019)

1. Asiatic lion is naturally found in India only.
2. Double-humped camel is naturally found in India only.
3. One-horned rhinoceros is naturally found in India only.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Syllabus

• Prelims – Geography

Context: The Odisha government recently, announced a plan to rehabilitate those displaced by the construction of the Hirakud dam.

Background:-

• In a resolution to a seven decade–long land displacement issue, 1,749 families of 19 villages of Jharsuguda district will be given rights on 3,231 acres of land .

About Hirakud Dam:-

IMAGE SOURCE: MapsofIndia

• Inaugurated: 1957.
• Location: 15 Kms from Sambalpur, Odisha.
• River: Mahanadi.
• Type: It is a composite structure of earth, concrete, and masonry. (Central Water Commission (CWC))
• Installed capacity: 287.8 MW.
• Height of Dam: 80.96 meters.

Historical Background:-

• After the high floods of 1937, M. Visveswaraya gave a proposal for a detailed investigation of storage reservoirs in the Mahanadi basin to tackle the problem of flood in Mahanadi delta.
• The multi-purpose Hirakud Dam project is the first stage of the plan of Dr. Ajodhya Nath Khosla, the then Governor of Odisha.
• The commissioning of Unit III of Burla Power House was completed in 1956.
• Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru laid the foundation stone in 1948.
• The project was formally inaugurated by Pandit Jawaharlal Nehru on 13 January 1957.

Objectives:-

• Irrigation.
• Power Generation.
• Flood Control. (National Dam Safety Authority)

Salient features:-

• The Hirakud Dam Project is a multipurpose scheme intended for flood control, irrigation, and power generation.
• This is one of the oldest hydel projects in India.
• It was the first post-independence major multi-purpose river valley project in the country.
• It is the longest dam in India.
• The Debrigarh Wildlife Sanctuary is located near Hirakud Dam.
  • It is bounded on the east and north by the huge Hirakud reservoir.

MUST READ: Sunni Dam Hydro Electric Project

SOURCE: THE HINDU

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Which one of the following has been constituted under the Environment (Protection) Act, 1986? (2022)

1. Central Water Commission
2. Central Ground Water Board
3. Central Ground Water Authority
4. National Water Development Agency

Q.2) Consider the following Rivers: (2021)

1. Brahmani
2. Nagavali
3. Subarnarekha
4. Vamsadhara

Which of the above rises from the Eastern Ghats?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 and 4
3. 3 and 4
4. 1 and 3

Syllabus

• Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

Context: Recent studies establish a clear link between academic stress and Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS).

Background:-

• Amid PCOS awareness month, in September, a concerning reality emerges that academic pressure may unknowingly contribute to a silent health crisis among young girls.

About Polycystic Ovary Syndrome (PCOS):-

IMAGE SOURCE: blog.well-woman clinic.in

• Polycystic ovary syndrome (PCOS) is a hormonal imbalance that occurs when ovaries create excess hormones.
  • Ovaries: the organ that produces and releases eggs.
• PCOS is a “syndrome,” or group of symptoms that affects the ovaries and ovulation.
• Its three main features are:
  • cysts in the ovaries
  • high levels of male hormones
  • irregular or skipped periods
• PCOS affects women during their childbearing years (ages 15 to 44).
• Between 2 and 26.7 percent of women in this age group have PCOS.
• PCOS interrupts the normal menstrual cycle and makes it harder to get pregnant.
• Between 70 and 80 percent of women with PCOS have fertility problems. (In vitro fertilization (IVF) procedure)

Causes:-

• The exact reasons of what causes PCOS is not known yet.
• It is believed that high levels of male hormones prevent the ovaries from producing hormones and making eggs normally.
• Genes, insulin resistance, and inflammation have all been linked to excess androgen formation.

Common symptoms of PCOS:-

• Irregular periods: A lack of ovulation prevents the uterine lining from shedding every month.
• Heavy bleeding: The uterine lining builds up for a longer period of time, so the periods you do get can be heavier than normal.
• Hair growth: More than 70 percent of women with this condition grow hair on their face and body — including on their back, belly, and chest.
• Acne: Male hormones can make the skin oilier than usual and cause breakouts in areas like the face, chest, and upper back.
• Weight gain. Up to 80 percent of women with PCOS are overweight or have obesity.
• Male pattern baldness. Hair on the scalp gets thinner and may fall out.
• Darkening of the skin. Dark patches of skin can form in body creases like those on the neck, in the groin, and under the breasts.
• Headaches: Hormone changes can trigger headaches in some women.

Common medical treatments:-

• Birth control pills and other medications can help regulate the menstrual cycle and treat PCOS symptoms like hair growth and acne.

MUST READ: Control of Anaemia among Children in the Country

SOURCE: THE HINDU

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following: (2022)

1. Aarogya Setu
2. COWIN
3. DigiLocker
4. DIKSHA

Which of the above are built on top of open-source digital platforms?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2, 3 and 4 only
3. 1, 3 and 4 only
4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2022)

1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues.
2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.
3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Syllabus

• Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance)

Context: The Government of India recently established an eight-member committee to examine the concept of ‘One nation, One election,’ highlighting the significance of parliamentary committees in the country.

About Committees of Parliament:

• A Parliamentary Committee is a panel of MPs that is appointed or elected by the House or nominated by the Speaker/Chairman.
• The committee works under the direction of the Speaker/chairman and it presents its report to the House or to the Speaker/chairman.
• Parliamentary Committees have their origins in the British Parliament.
• They draw their authority from Article 105 and Article 118.
  • Article 105 deals with the privileges of MPs.
  • Article 118 gives Parliament authority to make rules to regulate its procedure and conduct of business.

Types of Parliamentary Committees: Parliamentary committees in India serve diverse purposes and can be broadly categorized into four types: subject, financial, accountability, and administrative.

• Subject Committees: These committees oversee the functions and activities of each ministry, with ministers themselves ineligible for membership.
  • There are a total of 24 subject committees, comprising 31 members each, with proportional representation from both the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha.
  • Bills can be referred to subject committees for detailed examination, ensuring thorough scrutiny before passage.
• Financial Committees: These are the Estimates Committee, the Committee on Public Undertakings (CoPU), and the Public Accounts Committee (PAC).
  • Notably, these committees do not include ministers as members.
  • The Estimates Committee examines pre-budget estimates of various ministries.
• Ad hoc Committees: These are formed on a temporary basis for specific purposes, such as reviewing particular bills.
  • They disband once they complete their assigned tasks and submit reports.

Significance of the Parliamentary committees:

• Expertise and specialization: Parliamentary Committees are made up of members of Parliament who have specific expertise and knowledge in a particular area, such as finance, foreign affairs, or health.
• Checks and balances: These committees act as a check on the power of the executive branch by scrutinizing government policies and holding the government accountable for its actions.
• Strengthen the laws: Over the years, the committees have immensely contributed to strengthening the laws passed by Parliament.
  • The committee on Food and Consumer Affairs suggested several amendments, such as increasing penalties for misleading advertisements and making certain definitions clearer in Consumer Protection Act 2019.
• Budgetary oversight: The Departmental related standing committees (DRSCs) also examine the budget. Detailed estimates of the expenditure of all ministries are sent for examination to the DRCSs.
• Forum for building consensus: Committees provide a forum for building consensus across political parties. Committees have closed-door meetings, which allows them to discuss issues freely and arrive at a consensus.
• Public Engagement: Committees provide an opportunity for members of the public and organizations to engage directly with Parliament and contribute to the legislative process.

Issues associated with the Parliamentary Committees

• Lack of adequate resources: Parliamentary Committees lack adequate staff, research support, infrastructure, and funds to carry out their functions effectively.
  • They also face difficulties in accessing relevant information and data from the government.
• Lack of adequate time: Parliamentary Committees often have to deal with a large number of matters within a short period.
  • This affects their ability to conduct thorough scrutiny and analysis of various issues.
• Limited participation: Some committees struggle to attract sufficient participation from MPs, which can limit their effectiveness.
  • During 2009–14, only 49% of members were present for meetings of the departmental-related standing committees.
• Lack of detailed scrutiny: Parliamentary committees lack detailed scrutiny, face challenges in conducting thorough and effective scrutiny.
  • Only a limited proportion of the budget is usually discussed on the floor of the House. In the 16th Lok Sabha, only 17% of the budget was discussed in the House.
• Lack of enforceability: Parliamentary Committees do not have any binding authority over the government or the House.
  • Their recommendations are only advisory in nature and can be accepted or rejected by the government or the House.
  • This reduces their impact and influence on policymaking.
• Lack of transparency: Parliamentary Committees usually conduct their meetings in private and do not allow media or public access.
  • Their reports are also not made public until they are tabled in the House. This reduces their accountability and visibility to the public.

Way Forward: Suggestive measures

• Increase resources and time: To examine and review the policies and actions of the government, committees should be provided more time and resources.
  • The National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution (2002) recommended that funds should be allotted to assist these Committees in conducting inquiries, holding public hearings, and collecting data
• Enhance independence: Committees should be independent and not subject to pressure from the government or other influential groups.
• Increase public visibility: Make the work of committees more transparent and accessible to the public, such as by holding public hearings or publishing reports.
• Increase participation: Encouraging greater participation from MPs in committee work, through measures such as providing additional incentives or resources.

Source:   AIR

Syllabus

• Mains – GS 1 (History)

Context: In the month of September 1932, at the Yerawada Central Jail in Pune, Gandhi began fasting unto death against the award of separate electorates to harijans.

About Poona Pact of 1932:

• In 1932, Gandhi began a fast unto death in the Yerawada Jail against the British decision to create separate electorates based on caste.
• With pressure from Gandhi, Ambedkar signed the historic Poona Pact in 1932.
  • According to this pact, Hindu joint electorate was retained and gave reserved seats to the depressed classes.
• It was signed by Ambedkar on behalf of the depressed classes and Madan Mohan Malviya on behalf of the Upper Caste Hindus.

The reservations for lower castes under the pact:

• Gandhi’s Action: Gandhi began a fast unto death against the British decision to create separate electorates based on caste.
• Ambedkar’s Dilemma: Ambedkar disagreed with Gandhi’s political reservations and he knew Gandhi was the nation’s most loved political leader, and if something were to happen to him, the fledgling Dalit movement might bear heavy consequences.
• Inking of Poona Pact: With a heavy heart, Ambedkar agreed to Gandhi’s pressure, inking what would be known as the Poona Pact, which secured reservations for lower castes.

Evolving views on Caste:

Gandhi views:

• Earlier Orthodox Views: Initially, Gandhi supported traditional caste norms, advocating for inter-dining and inter-marriage prohibitions, considering caste fundamental to Hinduism.
• Evolution amid national movement: Gandhi’s views evolved as he assumed a pivotal role in India’s national movement, influenced by the emerging Dalit movement.
  • He began preaching unity and condemned untouchability, coining the term “harijans” for untouchables, emphasizing their status as children of God.
• Critique of untouchability: Gandhi openly criticized untouchability, recognizing its harmful impact on both spiritual and national well-being in 1936.

Ambedkar views:

• View of Rejection: Any revolt against the caste system would only be possible after the oppressed themselves rejected their condition and oppression as being divinely ordained.
• Rejection of Shastras: Bringing an end to the caste system would only be possible if the divine authority of the holy scriptures was rejected first.

Views on Separate Electorates:

Ambedkar’s Belief:

• Affirmative Action: He suggested separate electorates as a form of affirmative action to empower lower castes.
• Favor to Double Vote: He favoured separate electorates with double vote – one for SCs to vote for an SC candidate and the other for SCs to vote for in the general electorate.
• Against Joint Electorates: For him, joint electorates enabled the majority to influence the election of the representatives of the Dalits community, and thus disabled them for defending the interests of their oppression against the ‘tyranny of the majority’.

Gandhi’s Opposition:

• Restriction to Rule the World: Gandhi argued that rather than being restricted to just this measly share of seats, lower castes should aspire to rule “the kingdom of the whole world”.
• Exploitative Step: Gandhi rightly understood British intentions of exploiting internal divisions in Indian society for their own purposes.
  • Separate electorates would only help the British ‘divide and rule’.
  • This was also a time when antagonism between Hindus and Muslims was rising.
  • If separate electorates were announced, this would significantly reduce the Indians’ power.

Present system of reservation:

• The system of caste-based reservation sets aside a certain number of seats for people belonging to castes that historically experienced social and economic discrimination.
• These reservations are applicable on higher education, government jobs, and even political office.
• There are a certain number of seats reserved for scheduled castes (SCs) and (STs) in all legislative bodies, including Parliament.

Constitutional Provisions Governing Reservation in India

• Part XVI deals with reservation of SC and ST in Central and State legislatures.
• Article 15(4) and 16(4) of the Constitution enabled the State and Central Governments to reserve seats in government services for the members of the SC and ST.
• The Constitution was amended by the Constitution (77th Amendment) Act, 1995 and a new clause (4A) was inserted in Article 16 to enable the government to provide reservation in promotion.
  • Later, clause (4A) was modified by the Constitution (85th Amendment) Act, 2001 to provide consequential seniority to SC and ST candidates promoted by giving reservation.
• Constitutional 81st Amendment Act, 2000 inserted Article 16 (4 B) which enables the state to fill the unfilled vacancies of a year which are reserved for SCs/STs in the succeeding year, thereby nullifying the ceiling of fifty percent reservation on total number of vacancies of that year.
• Article 330 and 332 provides for specific representation through reservation of seats for SCs and STs in the Parliament and in the State Legislative Assemblies respectively.
• Article 243D provides reservation of seats for SCs and STs in every Panchayat.
• Article 233T provides reservation of seats for SCs and STs in every Municipality.

Source:  Indian Express

Q1) Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Q2) Consider the following statements

Statement-I:

‘Sahbhagi Dhan’ is a drought-tolerant variety of rice.

Statement-II:

‘BINA Dhan-11’, which is flood-tolerant.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q3) With reference to the Indian One-Horned Rhino, consider the following statements:

1. Its status is Least Concern on the IUCN Red List.
2. It is the smallest of all the rhino species.
3. It is in Appendix II of CITES.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Mains Practice Questions

Q.1) Do Department -related Parliamentary Standing Committees keep the administration on its toes and inspire reverence for parliamentary control? Evaluate the working of such Committees with suitable examples. (250 words)

Q.2) What are the ideological similarities and differences between Gandhi and Ambedkar? Explain (250 words)

Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!!

ANSWERS FOR ’  26th September 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st

Q.1) – b

Q.2) – c

Q.3) – a