DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 16th December 2023

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  • December 16, 2023
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Vijay Diwas

Syllabus

  • Prelims –IMPORTANT DAYS/DEFENSE

Context: Vijay Diwas was commemorated recently.

Background:-

  • PM Narendra Modi paid tribute to all the brave hearts who dutifully served India in 1971 on Vijay Diwas.

About Vijay Diwas:-

  • Vijay Diwas or Victory Day is commemorated on December 16.
  • It marks the end of the 1971 Indo-Pak War and the liberation of Bangladesh.
  • India declared victory on this day 51 years ago after Pakistan signed the Instrument of Surrender.
  • Ceremonies, parades, wreath-laying, and various events are organized across India, particularly in Delhi and Kolkata, to commemorate this significant day.

Historical Background of the war:-

  • After the partition of India following the end of British rule in 1947, two independent countries were formed – India and Pakistan.
  • The latter consisted of East Pakistan (now Bangladesh) and West Pakistan (present-day Pakistan).
  • The two Pakistans had their share of problems since the beginning because of a number of reasons – the most glaring one being the geographical disconnect between them.
  • East Pakistan was often overlooked in terms of administration as the top posts were held by those in the West.
  • In the mid-1960s, leaders such as Sheikh Mujibur Rahman, who is also known as the founder of Bangladesh actively began protesting against these policies and helped form the Awami League.
  • Soon, their demand became one for freedom and greater autonomy.
  • The League ended up winning a stunning 160 of the 162 seats in East Pakistan in the 1970 elections and won no seats in the West.
  • However, instead of recognizing the mandate, on March 25, 1971, the Pakistani military began a brutal crackdown that saw the mass slaughter of Bengalis.
  • India had declared support for the League previously but without direct intervention.
  • But when the Pakistan Air Force launched pre-emptive strikes towards Western India (including Amritsar, Pathankot, Srinagar, Avantipura, Ambala, Sirsa and Agra) on December 3, 1971, India formally declared war on December 4.
  • On December 6, India formally recognised Bangladesh as an independent nation.
  • Two days later, the Indian Navy launched an attack on Karachi.
  • From December 12 to 16, Indian forces pushed through to Dhaka and entered the city, ending the war with a total victory.

Significance:-

  • This war not only reshaped regional geopolitics but also underscored the importance of upholding human rights during conflicts.
  • Vijay Diwas is a day to honor the courage, sacrifice, and bravery of the soldiers who fought and to pay tribute to the martyrs. (The new defence systems handed over to Army)

MUST READ: India-Bangladesh Relations

SOURCE: INDIAN EXPRESS

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements with respect to the National Flag of India according to the Flag Code of India, 2002: (2023)

Statement-I:

One of the standard sizes of the National Flag of India is 600 mm x 400 mm.

Statement-II:

The ratio of the length to the height (width) of the Flag shall be 3: 2.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
  2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
  3. Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of Constitution Day: (2023)

Statement-I:

Constitution Day is celebrated on 26th November every year to promote constitutional values among citizens.

Statement-II:

On 26th November 1949, the Constituent Assembly of India set up a Drafting Committee under the chairmanship of Dr B. R. Ambedkar to prepare a Draft ·Constitution of India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
  2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
  3. Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Kashi Tamil Sangamam

Syllabus

  • Prelims –ART AND CULTURE

Context: Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi will inaugurate the second phase of Kashi Tamil Sangamam on 17th December 2023.

Background:-

  • The Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi today called Kashi Tamil Sangamam forum a testament to the unity and diversity of India, strengthening the spirit of ‘Ek Bharat Shreshtha Bharat’.

About Kashi Tamil Sangamam:-

  • Date: 17th to the 30th of December 2023
  • VENUE: Varanasi.
  • Inauguration: Prime Minister Shri Narendra Modi will inaugurate Kashi Tamil Sangamam 2023 at Namo Ghat on 17 December 2023.
  • The second phase of Kashi Tamil Sangamam will commence from 17th to 30th December, 2023 at the holy city of Kashi (Varanasi).
  • It will celebrate the many aspects of the historical and civilizational connection between India’s North and South.
  • Nearly 1400 (7 Groups of 200 persons each) people are expected to be travelling from different parts of Tamil Nadu, representing varied walks of life.
  • The 7 groups of Students (Ganga), Teachers (Yamuna), Professionals (Godavari), Spiritual (Saraswati), Farmers and Artisans (Narmada), Writers (Sindhu) and Traders and Businessmen (Kaveri) have been named after seven sacred rivers of India will travel from Chennai, Coimbatore and Kanyakumari to Kashi.
  • The Ministry of Education, Government of India, will be the nodal agency for this event with participation from the Ministries of Culture, Tourism, Railways, Textiles, Food Processing (ODOP), MSME, Information & Broadcasting, Skill Development & Entrepreneurship, IRCTC and related departments of Government of Uttar Pradesh.
  • IIT Madras will be acting as the implementing agency in Tamil Nadu and Banaras Hindu University (BHU) in Uttar Pradesh.

History of ties between Kashi and Tamil Nadu:-

  • Many households in Tamilnadu adopted the names of Kailasanatha and Kashinatha for naming their children, like those who are living in Kashi and Uttar Pradesh.
  • King Adhiveera Rama Pandiyan of the Pandya Dynasty dedicated a Shiva Temple at Tenkasi of Tamilnadu after his pilgrimage to Kashi , whose ancestors established Sivakasi.
  • Saint Kumaragurupara from Sri Vaikundam, Tuthukudi District of Tamil Nadu has excelled in bargaining with the Sultanate of Kashi with audacity and drove a lion to his courtyard to get back the Kedarghat and a place for the consecration of Vishweshwara Lingam.
  • He has written “Kashi Kalambakam” a grammatical composition of poems on Kashi.

MUST READ: India’s Cultural Renaissance

SOURCE: PIB

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Th Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022)

  1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines.
  2. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni.
  3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Q.2) With reference  to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: (2021)

  1. It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty.
  2. It is the only circular temple built in India.
  3. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region.
  4. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Election Commission of India

Syllabus

  • Prelims –POLITY

Context: Recently, Justice Nariman said that the new CEC law be struck down as ‘arbitrary it severely imperils the independence of the Election Commission of India.

Background:-

  • Justice (Retired) Rohinton F Nariman, former Supreme Court judge and former Solicitor General of India, on Friday said the recent Bill to regulate the appointment process of the Election Commission of India, once it becomes an Act, be struck down as “arbitrary” and “severely imperilling the independence of ECI”. “If it is not (struck down), it is fraught with the greatest danger to democracy,” he said.
  • The Bill seeks to regulate the appointment of the Election Commission of India (ECI) by constituting a three-member selection committee comprising the Prime Minister, the Leader of the Opposition or leader of the single largest Opposition party in the Lok Sabha and a Cabinet Minister named by the PM.

About the Election Commission of India:-

  • The Election Commission is a permanent and independent body established by the Constitution of India. (Election Commission)
  • Objective: to ensure free and fair elections in the country.
  • Article 324 of the Constitution: provides that the power of superintendence, direction and control of elections to parliament, state legislatures, the office of president of India and the office of vice-president of India shall be vested in the election commission.

Composition Election Commission of India:-

  • Members: The election commission shall consist of the Chief Election Commissioner and a such number of other election commissioners, if any, as the President may from time to time fix.
  • Appointment: The appointment of the chief election commissioner and other election commissioners shall be made by the
  • Head: When any other election commissioner is so appointed the chief election commissioner shall act as the chairman of the election commission.
  • Regional commissioners: The president may also appoint after consultation with the election commission such regional commissioners as he may consider necessary to assist the election commission.

Procedure of Removal:-

  • The Chief Election Commissioner can be removed from office only through a process of removal similar to that of a Supreme Court judge by Parliament.
    • Judges of High Courts and Supreme Court, CEC, Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) may be removed from office through a motion adopted by Parliament on grounds ofProven misbehaviour or incapacity’.
    • Removal requires a special majority of 2/3rd members present and voting supported by more than 50% of the total strength of the house.
  • Conditions of service: it shall be such as the President may by rule.
  • Tenure of office: President may by rule determine it.

Key Functions of ECI:-

  • ECI superintendents, direct and control the entire process of conducting elections.
    • These include elections to Parliament and Legislature of every State and to the offices of President and Vice-President of India.
  • It decides the election schedules for the conduct of periodic and timely elections, whether general or bye-elections.
  • It prepares electoral rolls and issues Electronic Photo Identity Cards (EPIC).
  • It decides on the location of polling stations, assignment of voters to the polling stations, location of counting centres, and other related arrangements to be made.
  • It grants recognition to political parties.
  • It allots election symbols to them along with settling disputes related to it.
  • Advisory jurisdiction: it can advise in the matter of post-election disqualification of sitting members of Parliament and State Legislatures.
  • It issues the Model Code of Conduct in elections for political parties and candidates.
  • Model Code of Conduct: a set of guidelines issued by the Election Commission of India for the conduct of political parties and candidates during elections.
  • It sets limits of campaign expenditure per candidate to all the political parties and also monitors the same.

MUST READ: Cohort on Election Integrity

SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) In essence, what does ‘Due Process of Law’ mean? (2023)

  1. The principle of natural justice
  2. The procedure established by law
  3. Fair application of law
  4. Equality before law

Q.2) With reference to Finance Bill and Money Bill in the Indian Parliament, consider the following statements : (2023)

  1. When the Lok Sabha transmits Finance Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it can amend or reject the Bill.
  2. When the Lok Sabha transmits Money Bill to the Rajya Sabha, it cannot amend or reject the Bill, it can only make recommendations.
  3. In the case of disagreement between the Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha, there is no joint sitting for Money Bill, but a joint sitting becomes necessary for Finance Bill.

How many of the above statements are correct?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All three
  4. None

Indira Gandhi Zoological Park (IGZP)

Syllabus

  • Prelims –GEOGRAPHY/ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

Context: Recently, the Indira Gandhi Zoological Park (IGZP) , got two new species from Warangal Zoo as part of an animal exchange programme.

 Background:-

  • As part of the exchange, the IGZP has received Mouse Deer (1 male, 2 female) and Chowsinga (four Horned antelope) (1 male, 2 female). In return, the zoo is sparing hog deer (1 male, 2 female), barking deer (1 male, 2 female) and Lutino Parakeets (1 male, 2 female)

About Indira Gandhi Zoological Park (IGZP):-

  • Location: Visakhapatnam district of Andhra Pradesh.
  • Area : 625 acres
  • Indira Gandhi Zoological Park is located amidst Seethakonda Reserve Forest .
  • The construction for this ex-situ facility started in the very year 1972 when Wildlife Protection Act of this country came into existence.
  • It was opened to public on 19th May, 1977.
  • It is surrounded by beautiful and scenic hills of Eastern Ghats on three sides and the Bay of Bengal on the fourth side.
  • Being a Large category Zoo recognized by the Central Zoo Authority it houses 843 number of animals like mammals, carnivores, lesser carnivores, canids, ungulates, reptiles, birds and butterflies belonging to 123 species in a natural ambience. (Wildlife Institute of India (WII))
  • This place is also home to many free-ranging animals and birds owing to its existence in a forest area close to Kambalakonda Wildlife Sanctuary.

MUST READ: Wildlife Protection

SOURCE: TIMES OF INDIA

 PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in Cauvery basin? (2020)

  1. Nagarhole National Park
  2. Papikonda National Park
  3. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
  4. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 and 4 only
  3. 1, 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.2) Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat? (2020)

  1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary
  2. Gangotri National Park
  3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary
  4. Manas National Park

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 and 4 only
  4. 1 and 4 only

Nyholm prize

Syllabus

  • Prelims –AWARDS

Context: Recently, Mumbai professor bagged Royal Society of Chemistry’s Nyholm prize.

Background:-

  • Professor Savita Ladage from Mumbai’s Homi Bhabha Centre for Science Education, Tata Institute of Fundamental Research, received the Royal Society of Chemistry’s Nyholm Prize for Education in recognition of her contributions to chemistry education.
  • Ladage bagged the award for her advocacy of the significance of chemical education.
  • Her efforts include mentoring chemistry educators and spearheading impactful teacher and student programs that advance chemistry education in the country.
  • In addition to the prize, Prof. Ladage will be awarded £5,000, along with a medal and a certificate.

About Nyholm prize:-

  • Presented by: The Royal Society of Chemistry.
  • Nyholm Prize, celebrate individuals working across various levels of education.( Chess Olympiad)
  • It recognizes the dedication of teachers, technicians, and education professionals.
  • This prize recognizes inspirational, innovative and dedicated individuals or teams making a substantial and sustained impact within education.
  • It is run annually.
  • The prize alternates between being open to nominees both in the UK and Ireland and internationally, and open only to nominations from the UK and Ireland.
  • For 2023, the prize is open to nominees based anywhere in the world.
  • The winner(s) receives £5000, a medal and a certificate.
  • The winner(s) will complete a series of lectures or workshops in the UK.
  • The winner(s) will be chosen by the Education Prize Committee.

MUST READ: Sastra Ramanujan Prize

SOURCE: THE HINDU

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023)

  1. It was the first time that the Chess Olympiad was held in India.
  2. The official mascot was named Thambi.
  3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
  4. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. Only three
  4. All four

Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the Laureus World Sports Award which was instituted in the year 2000: (2021)

  1. American golfer Tiger Woods was the first winner of this award.
  2. The award has been received mostly by ‘Formula One’ players so far.
  3. Roger Federer received this award a maximum number of times compared to others.

Which of the above statements is correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Social Stock Exchange

Syllabus

  • Prelims –ECONOMY

Context: Recently, Unnati became the first entity to list on the social stock exchange.

Background:-

  • There are 38 more NPOs registered with the NSE SSE, and more listings could be in the offing in the next few months.

About Social Stock Exchange:-

  • Social Stock Exchange(SSE) is a platform that allows investors to invest in select social enterprises or social initiatives.
  • Objectives: The SSE would function as a separate segment within the existing stock exchange and help social enterprises raise funds from the public through its mechanism.
  • The Union Budget ( 201920 )proposed to initiate steps for creating a stock exchange under the market regulator’s ambit.
  • SEBI constituted a group under the chairmanship of Tata group veteran Ishaat Hussain in 2019.
  • In 2020, SEBI again set up the Technical Group(TG) under Harsh Bhanwala, ex-Chairman, NABARD to get further expert advice and clarity on SSE.
  • The Social Stock Exchange (SSE) is a novel concept in India and such a course is meant to serve private and non-profit sector providers by channeling greater capital to them.
  • Global Examples: SSE exists in countries such as Singapore, and the UK among others.

Salient Features:

  • It is meant to serve private and non-profit sector providers by channelling greater capital to them.
  • As per the proposal, SSE can be housed within the existing stock exchange such as the BSE and/or National Stock Exchange (NSE).
  • Retail investors can only invest in securities offered by for-profit social enterprises (SEs) under the Main Board.
  • In all other cases, only institutional investors and non-institutional investors can invest in securities issued by SEs.

Eligibility:

  • Any non-profit organization (NPO) or for-profit social enterprise (FPSEs) that establishes the primacy of social intent would be recognized as a social enterprise (SE), which will make it eligible to be registered or listed on the SSE.
  • NPOs can raise money either through the issuance of Zero Coupon Zero Principal (ZCZP) Instruments from private placement or public issue, or donations from mutual funds.

About Zero Coupon Zero Principal (ZCZP) Instruments :

  • These are issued by a Not for Profit Organisation (NPO) which will be registered with the Social Stock Exchange (SSE) segment of a recognized stock exchange.
  • The Finance Ministry has declared zero coupons zero principal instruments (ZCZP) as securities for the purposes of the Securities Contracts (Regulation) Act, 1956.
  • These instruments will be governed by rules made by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI)

About Zero-coupon bond

  • It is a debt security that does not pay interest but instead trades at a deep discount, rendering a profit at maturity, when the bond is redeemed for its full face value.
  • The difference between the purchase price of a zero-coupon bond and the par value indicates the investor’s return.

MUST READ: Allowing non-profit organisations to list on social stock exchanges recommended

SOURCE: BUISINESSLINE

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements with reference to India : (2023)

  1. According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, the ‘medium enterprises’ are those with
  2. investments in plant and machinery between (‘ 15 crore and(’25 crore).
  3. All bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) In the context of finance, the term ‘beta’ refers to (2023)

  1. the process of simultaneous buying and selling of an asset from different platforms ·
  2. an investment strategy of a portfolio manager to balance risk versus reward.
  3. a type of systemic risk that arises where perfect hedging is not possible.
  4. a numeric value that measures the fluctuations. of stock to changes in the overall stock market.

Practice MCQs

Daily Practice MCQs

Q1) Consider the following pairs:

OPERATIONS YEAR
Operation Polo 1979
Operation Meghdoot 1984
Operation Vijay 1961

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

  1. Only one
  2. Only two
  3. All three
  4. None

Q2) Consider the following statements

Statement-I :

Indira Gandhi Zoological Park (IGZP)  is located in Karnataka.

Statement-II :

It is located amidst Seethakonda Reserve Forest.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

  1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
  2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
  3. Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
  4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q3) With reference to the Election Commission of India, consider the following statements:

  1. It does not grant recognition to political parties.
  2. It allots election symbols to them along with settling disputes related to it.
  3. It is not a permanent and independent body.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 2 only
  2. 1, 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1 only

Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!!

ANSWERS FOR ’  16th December 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st


ANSWERS FOR 15th December – Daily Practice MCQs

Answers- Daily Practice MCQs

Q.1) – a

Q.2) – c

Q.3) – b

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