Syllabus

• Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES

Context: Recently, Open Acreage Licensing Policy Bid Round-IX was launched.

Background:-

• Contracts signed for 3 Coal Bed Methane Blocks awarded under Special CBM Bid Round- 2022.
• Contracts also signed for 10 blocks awarded under OALP Bid Round-VIII.

About Open Acreage Licensing Policy (OALP):-

• Launched: June 2017
• Ministry: Ministry of Petroleum and Natural Gas (MoPNG)
• Objective: to accelerate the Exploration and Production (E&P) activities in India.

Salient Features:-

• Under HELP, Open Acreage Licensing (OALP) mechanism has been launched which allows the investors to carve out blocks of their choice by assessing E&P data available at NDR & by submitting an Expression of Interest (EoI).
  • The Hydrocarbon Exploration and Licensing Policy (HELP) replaced the erstwhile New Exploration Licensing Policy (NELP) in March 2016.
• EOI can be submitted throughout the year without waiting for a formal bid round from the government.
• These blocks would be subsequently offered through a biannual formal bidding process.
• OALP would be manifested through the National Data Repository which will provide a rapid jumpstart to E&P activities by providing seamless access to the country’s entire G&G data for interpretation and analysis.
  • NDR is a government-sponsored E&P data bank with state-of-the-art facilities and infrastructure for the preservation, upkeep and dissemination of data to enable its systematic use for future exploration and development.

Benefits:-

• The OALP has helped remove red-tapism.
• It brought in a quantum jump in the Exploration and production sector.( India’s Transation away from Coal)

MUST READ: Green Hydrogen

SOURCE: PIB

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) With reference to green hydrogen, consider the following statements : (2023)

1. It can be used directly as a fuel for internal combustion.
2. It can be blended with natural gas and used as fuel for heat or power generation.
3. It can be used in the hydrogen fud cell to run vehicles.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Q.2) Consider the following statements with reference to India: (2023)

1. According to the ‘Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises Development (MSMED) Act, 2006’, ‘medium enterprises’ are those with investments in plant and machinery between (‘ 15 crores and ’25 crore.)
2. All bank loans to Micro, Small and Medium Enterprises qualify under the priority sector.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Syllabus

• Prelims –ART AND CULTURE/ GOVERNANCE

Context: Recently, the Department of Empowerment of Persons with Disabilities presented the spectacular cultural event, “Divya Kala Shakti,” in Ahmedabad.

Background:-

• The event brought together participants from across Gujarat, Rajasthan, Maharashtra, Dadra and Nagar Haveli, and Daman and Diu, totaling 100 divyang individuals who took centre stage in mesmerizing performances.

About Divya Kala Shakti:-

• Began:2019.
• Organized by: Ministry of Social Justice and Empowerment.
• Divya Kala Shakti is a cultural event which provides a wider and unique platform to showcase the potential of Persons with Differently Abled in the field of performing art, music, dance, acrobatics etc.
• It is an innovative platform to showcase Divyangjan’s innate talents.
• It has been organized in various parts of the country since 2019.
• It is organized at the national level and in other regions of the country.

Significance:-

• It aims at developing confidence among persons with disabilities.

MUST READ: Draft National Policy on Persons with Disabilities (PwD)

SOURCE: PIB

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements in relation to Janani Suraksha Yojana : (2023)

1. It is a safe motherhood intervention of the State Health Departments.
2. Its objective is to reduce maternal and neonatal mortality among poor pregnant women.
3. It aims to promote institutional delivery among poor pregnant women.
4. Its objective includes providing public health facilities to sick infants up to one year of age.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Q.2) Consider the following statements in the context of interventions being undertaken under the Anaemia Mukt Bharat Strategy : (2023)

1. It provides prophylactic calcium supplementation for preschool children, adolescents and pregnant women.

1. It runs a campaign for delayed cord clamping at the time of childbirth.
2. It provides for periodic deworming to children and adolescents.
3. It addresses non-nutritional causes of anaemia in endemic pockets with a special focus on malaria, hemoglobinopathies and fluorosis.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Syllabus

• Prelims –HISTORY

Context: Recently, the Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi paid tributes to Rani Velu Nachiyar on her Jayanti.

Background:-

• The Prime Minister also shared some excerpts from Mann Ki Baat where he expressed his views about Rani Velu Nachiyar.

About Rani Velu Nachiyar:-

• Born on: January 3, 1730.
• Died on: December 25, 1796.
• Rani Velu Nachiyar is the 18th century queen from Sivagangai district in Tamil Nadu.
• She held the title of queen in the Sivaganga estate from around 1780 to 1790.
• She made history as the first Indian queen to stand up against the East India Company through armed conflict.
• Among the Tamil people, she is affectionately remembered as Veeramangai, meaning “Brave Woman.”
• She was trained in war match weapons usage, martial arts like Valari, Silambam (fighting using the stick), horse riding and archery.
• She was a scholar in many languages and she had proficiency with languages like French, English and Urdu.
• She married the king of Sivagangai named Muthuvaduganathaperiya Udaiyathevar.
• She proudly ruled Sivagangai for more than 10 years.
• During her reign, the queen also created a women’s only army called Udaiyaal.

The war against the British:-

• In collaboration with Hyder Ali and Gopala Nayaker, she waged a war against the British and emerged victoriously
• She granted powers to the Marudu brothers to administer the country in 1780.

MUST READ: Rani Lakshmibai – Her Jayanti

SOURCE: PIB

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) In the context of Indian history, the Rakhmabai case of 1884 revolved around

1. Women’s right to gain education
2. Age of consent
3. Restitution of conjugal rights

Select the correct answer using the code given below : (2020)

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) With reference to Indian freedom struggle, consider the following events:

1. Mutiny in Royal Indian Navy
2. Quit India Movement launched
3. Second Round Table Conference

What is the correct chronological sequence of the above events? (2017)

1. 1-2-3
2. 2-1-3
3. 3-2-1
4. 3-1-2

Syllabus

• Prelims –GOVERNANCE/IMPORTANT ORGANIZATIONS

Context: As per recent announcements by the Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA), it  conducted 5,745 surveillance activities in 2023.

Background:-

• These surveillances include four thousand 39 planned surveillance, and one thousand 706 spot checks and night surveillance.

About Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA):-

• The Directorate General of Civil Aviation (DGCA) is a statutory body of the Government of India.
  • It was formed under the Aircraft (Amendment) Act, of 2020.
• It comes under the Ministry of Civil Aviation. (New Director General of Bureau Of Civil Aviation Security (BCAS) appointed)
• It aims to regulate civil aviation in India.
• It primarily deals with safety issues in civil aviation.
• Its headquarters are located in New Delhi.
  • It has regional offices in various parts of India.
• Mandate: DGCA is responsible for the regulation of air transport services to/from/within India and for enforcement of civil air regulations, air safety, and airworthiness standards. (Reforms In Civil Aviation Industry)
• Functions:-
  • Registration of civil aircraft.
  • Formulation of standards of airworthiness for civil aircraft registered in India and grant of certificates of airworthiness to such aircraft.
  • Licensing of pilots, aircraft maintenance engineers and flight engineers, and conducting examinations and checks for that purpose.
  • Licensing of air traffic controllers.
  • Investigating accidents/incidents.
  • Taking accident prevention measures.
  • Coordination at the national level for flexible use of air space by civil and military air traffic agencies
  • Interaction with ICAO for the provision of more air routes for civil use through Indian air space.
  • Promoting indigenous design and manufacture of aircraft.

MUST READ:  International Air Connectivity Scheme (IACS) scheme

SOURCE: AIR

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022)

1. In India, credit rating agencies are regulated by the Reserve Bank of India.
2. The rating agency popularly known as ICRA is a public limited company.
3. Brickwork Ratings is an Indian credit rating agency.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022)

1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
4. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

1. 1 and 3
2. 2 and 4
3. 3 and 4
4. 1 and 4

Syllabus

• Prelims –ECONOMY

Context: Recently, EPFO (Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation) extended deadline to upload wage details for higher pension options till May 31,2024.

Background:-

• Earlier, the deadline for employers to upload wage details for those opting for higher pension on higher contribution was December 31, 2023.

About EPFO (Employees’ Provident Fund Organisation):-

• Establishment: 1952.
• Ministry: Ministry of Labour & Employment.
• HQ: New Delhi.
• It is a government organizationthat manages the provident fund (PF) and pension accounts of member employees.
• Provident fund (PF): it is an investment fund contributed to by employees, employers, and (sometimes) the state, out of which a lump sum is provided to each employee on retirement.
• Functions: It implements the Employees’ Provident Fund and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952.

Historical Background:-

• The Employees’ Provident Fund came into existence with the promulgation of the Employees’ Provident Funds Ordinance in 1951.
• It was later replaced by the Employees’ Provident Funds Act, 1952.
• It is managed by the Employees’ Provident Fund Organization (EPFO).

Objectives:-

• To meet the evolving needs of comprehensive social securityin a transparent, contactless, faceless and paperless manner.
• To ensure ease of living for members and pensionersand ease of doing business for employers by leveraging the Government of India’s technology platforms for reaching out to millions.

EPF Scheme of 1952

• It is a mandatory savings scheme under the Employees’ Provident Funds and Miscellaneous Provisions Act, 1952.
• It covers every establishment in which 20 or more personsare employed.
• It also covers certainother establishments which may be notified by the Central Government even if they employ less than 20 persons each.
• The employee has to pay a certain contribution towardsthe provident fund (PF) and the employer on a monthly basis pays the same amount.
• The employee and the employer contribute to the EPF India scheme on monthly basis in equal proportions of 12% of the basic salary and dearness allowance.
• At the end ofretirement or during the service (under some circumstances), the employee gets the lump sum amount including the interest on the PF contributed.
• EPF is a tax-saving instrument that offers relatively higher interest rates on investments.(  EPFO’s New Facility on UMANG App started)
• Partial withdrawals:allowed for education, marriage, illness and house construction.

 MUST READ: National Pension System (NPS)

SOURCE: BUISINESS LINE

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021)

1. Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market
2. The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India.
3. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct? (2021)

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 3 only
4. 2 and 3

Q.2) Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)? (2017)

1. Resident Indian citizens only
2. Persons of age from 21 to 55 only
3. All State Government employees joining the services after the state of notification by the respective State Governments
4. All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April 2004

Syllabus

• Prelims –POLITY/ INTERNATIONAL RELATIONS

Context: Recently, South Africa moved the International Court of Justice (ICJ), for an urgent order declaring that Israel was in breach of its obligations under the 1948 Genocide Convention.

Background:-

• Amid international criticism of Israel for its continued bombing of Gaza, South Africa moved the International Court of Justice (ICJ), for an urgent order declaring that Israel was in breach of its obligations under the 1948 Genocide Convention.

About International Court of Justice (ICJ):-

• Establishment: 1945.
• HQ: the Peace Palace in The Hague (Netherlands).
• The International Court of Justice (ICJ) is the principal judicial organ of the United Nations.
• The Court’s role is to settle, in accordance with international law, legal disputes submitted to it by States and to give advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by authorized United Nations organs and specialized agencies.
• The ICJ is a United Nations platform for resolving disputes between states.
• ICJ was established in 1945 by the United Nations charter and started working in April 1946.
• Unlike the six principal organs of the United Nations, it is the only one not located in New York (USA). (Need for Reforms in UN)

Composition:-

• The Court consists of fifteen judges.
• And not more than one judge shall be elected from one state, for the Court at a given time.
• Qualifications: – The candidate for the office of judge in the Court shall possess the following qualifications:
  • He should be independent.
  • He should be a person of high moral character.
  • He must be qualified for the appointment of the highest judicial offices in his country
• The nature of the office of judge for the Court is elective.
• General Assembly and Security Council shall conduct the election of the judges of the Court independently, but simultaneously.
• The term of the office for the judge of the Court is nine years.

Jurisdiction and power:-

• ICJ acts as a world court with two fold jurisdictione. legal disputes between States submitted to it by them (contentious cases) and requests for advisory opinions on legal questions referred to it by United Nations organs and specialized agencies (advisory proceedings).
• Only States which are members of the United Nations and which have become parties to the Statute of the Court or which have accepted its jurisdiction under certain conditions, are parties to contentious cases.
• The judgment is final, binding on the parties to a case and without appeal.

Functioning:-

• The ICJ decides disputes in accordance with international law as reflected in international conventions, international custom, general principles of law recognized by civilized nations, judicial decisions, and writings of the most highly qualified experts on international law

MUST READ: Rohingya & ICC

SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020)

International agreement/ set-up Subject

1. Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people
2. Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons
3. Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change
4. Under2 Coalition – Child Rights

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 4 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2,3 and 4 only

Q.2) With reference to the “G20 Common Framework”, consider the following statements (2022)

1. It is an initiative endorsed by the G20 together with the Paris Club.
2. It is an initiative to support Income Countries with unsustainable debt.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Syllabus

• Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

Context: Indian Space start-ups recently reported success of in-orbit tests aboard ISRO’s POEM.

Background:-

• Dhurva Space, Bellatrix Aerospace successfully test solutions onboard ISRO’s PSLV Orbital Experimental Module.

About ISRO’s POEM:-

• By : ISRO
• POEM stands for PSLV Orbital Experimental Module.
• It is a platform that will help perform in-orbit experiments using the final, and otherwise discarded, stage of ISRO’s workhorse rocket, the Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV).
  • PSLV is a four-stage rocket where the first three spent stages fall back into the ocean, and the final stage (PS4) after launching the satellite into orbit and ends up as space junk.
  • However, in PSLV-C53 mission, the spent final stage will be utilised as a “stabilised platform” to perform experiments.
• POEM is carrying six payloads, including two from Indian space start-ups Digantara (for making the map of space radiations, debris, and orbits) and Dhruva Space (for full-stack satellite development, launch, deployment, operation and maintenance services)
• According to ISRO, POEM has a dedicated Navigation Guidance and Control (NGC) system for attitude stabilization, which stands for controlling the orientation of any aerospace vehicle within permitted limits. The NGC will act as the platform’s brain to stabilize it with specified accuracy.
• POEM will derive its power from solar panels mounted around the PS4 tank, and a Li-Ion battery.
• It will navigate using “four sun sensors, a magnetometer, gyros & NavIC”.
• It carries dedicated control thrusters using Helium gas storage.
• It is enabled with a telecommand feature. (Gaganyaan)

MUST READ:  Space Economy of India

SOURCE: BUISINESSLINE

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Which one of the following countries has its own Satellite Navigation System? (2023)

1. Australia
2. Canada
3. Israel
4. Japan

Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023)

1. Ballistic missiles are jet-propelled at subsonic speeds throughout their flights, while cruise missiles are rocket-powered only in the initial phase of flight.
2. Agni-V is a medium-range supersonic cruise missile, while BrahMos is a solid-fuelled intercontinental ballistic missile.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q1) Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Q2) Consider the following statements

Statement-I :

ICJ headquarters are located in New York.

Statement-II :

Its judgment is final, binding on the parties to a case and without appeal.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q3) With reference to Rani Velu Nachiyar , consider the following statements:

1. She is the 18th century queen from Tamil Nadu.
2. She made history as the first Indian queen to stand up against the East India Company through armed conflict.
3. Among the Tamil people, she is affectionately remembered as Veeramangai, meaning “Brave Woman.”

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 2 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 only

Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!!

ANSWERS FOR ’  5th January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st

Q.1) – a

Q.2) – d

Q.3) – b