DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 27th April 2023

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  • April 27, 2023
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United Nations Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues (UNPFII)


  • Prelims –Environment and Ecology

Context: Recently, UNPFII called for inclusion of indigenous people in socio-economic development, and conservation of the environment.

About United Nations Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues (UNPFII):-

IMAGE SOURCE: Fourth World: Least Developed Countries And A Look At Their Economy (valuewalk.com)

  • The United Nations Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues (UNPFII) is a high-level advisory body to the Economic and Social Council.
  • The Forum was established on 28 July 2000 by resolution 2000/22.
  • It has the mandate to deal with indigenous issues related to economic and social development, culture, the environment, education, health and human rights.
  • The first meeting of the Permanent Forum was held in May 2002, with yearly sessions thereafter.
  • The Forum usually meets for 10 days each year, at the UN Headquarters in New York.
  • The Permanent Forum is one of three UN bodies that is mandated to deal specifically with indigenous peoples’ issues.
    • The others are the Expert Mechanism on the Rights of Indigenous Peoples and the Special Rapporteur on the Rights of indigenous peoples.
  • The UN Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues is the largest international gathering of Indigenous Peoples, with more than 1000 participants expected to attend.
  • The 22nd Session of the United Nations Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues (UNPFII) will convene in New York from 17 to 28 April 2023.
  •  It has the theme “Indigenous Peoples, human health, planetary and territorial health and climate change: a rights-based Approach”.

MUST READ: United Nations Human Rights Council (UNHRC)



Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2019)

  1. The United Nations Convention against Corruption (UNCAC) has a ‘Protocol against the Smuggling of Migrants by Land, Sea and Air’.
  2. The UNCAC is the ever-first legally binding global anti-corruption instrument.
  3. A highlight of the United Nations Convention against Transnational Organized Crime (UNTOC) is the inclusion of a specific chapter aimed at returning assets to their rightful owners from whom they had been taken illicitly.
  4. The United Nations Office on Drugs and Crime (UNODC) is mandated by its members States to assist in the implementation of both UNCAC and UNTOC.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

  1. 1 and 3 only
  2. 2, 3 and 4 only
  3. 2 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4

Q.2) Consider the following statements (2016)

  1. The Nuclear Security Summits are periodically held under the aegis of the United Nations.
  2. The International Panel on Fissile Materials is an organ of the International Atomic Energy Agency.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Manamadurai pottery


  • Prelims –Art and Culture

Context: Recently, Tamil Nadu’s Manamadurai pottery got a GI tag.

About Manamadurai Pottery:-

IMAGE SOURCE: PPT – Ceramic Pottery PowerPoint Presentation, free download – ID:5649934 (slideserve.com)

  • Manamadurai, a small village in the Sivagangai district of Tamil Nadu, is known for its pottery making.
  • The tradition has been passed down from generation to generation, and today, Manamadurai pottery is recognized worldwide for its unique style and craftsmanship.
  • The main raw material used for making Manamadurai pottery is mud.
  • The clay used for the pottery is enriched by the Vaigai River which runs through the village.
    • The Vaigai River contributes to the quality of the clay used in the pottery, making it ideal for the process.
  • The making of Manamadurai pottery involves the use of the five elements of nature, namely, earth, water, fire, air, and space.
  • These elements are believed to give the pots a unique quality that cannot be replicated by modern machinery.
  • To improve the quality of the pottery, sand is added to the clay mixture.
  • Lead, graphite, calcium lime, ash, red lead, sodium silicate, manganese, iron, and plasticizing are added to the mixture to make the pottery strong.
  • Pot making requires expertise and is one of the most critical factors in proportion.
    • The bottom of the pot has to be perfectly round, and the circumference of the pot and the neck should be proportionate.

MUST READ: GI tag for Narasinghapettai nagaswaram



Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2021)

Historical place                 Well-known for

  1. Burzahom                   Rock-cut shrines
  2. Chandraketugarh       Terracotta art
  3. Ganeshwar                 Copper artefacts

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 3 only
  4. 2 and 3

Q.2) Consider the following pairs: (2018)

Crafts                               Heritage of

  1. Puthukkuli Shawls                   Tamil Nadu
  2. Sujni Embroidery                    Maharashtra
  3. Uppada Jamdani saris             Karnataka

Which of the pairs given above is /are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 1 and 2
  3. 3 only
  4. 2 and 3

Zero Shadow Day


  • Prelims –Geography

Context: Recently, Bengaluru saw Zero Shadow Day.

About Zero Shadow Day:-


  • Zero Shadow Day’ is an astronomical event that occurs twice a year on specific dates in some parts of the world.
  • It is a phenomenon that occurs when the Sun is directly overhead.
  •  The shadows of vertical objects such as poles, trees, and buildings disappear completely for a brief period of time during this.
  • There are two zero shadow days every year in May and July/August, observed in places that lie between the tropic of Cancer and the tropic of Capricorn.
    • One fall during the Uttarayan (when the Sun moves northwards).
    • The other is during Dakshinayan (when the Sun moves southwards).
  • It lasts for a small part of a second, but the effect can be seen for a minute to a minute-and-a-half.
  • Ramanujam explained that the Sun’s location moves from 23.5°N to 23.5°S of Earth’s equator and back.
    • All places whose latitude equals the angle between the Sun’s location and the equator on that day experience zero shadow day, with the shadow beneath an object at local noon.

MUST READ: Aditya-L1 Mission



Q.1) In the northern hemisphere, the longest day of the year normally occurs in the: (2022)

  1. First half of the month of June
  2. The second half of the month of June
  3. The first half of the month of July
  4. The second half of the month of July

Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2021)

  1. In the tropical zone, the western sections of the oceans are warmer than the eastern sections owing to the influence of trade winds.
  2. In the temperate Zone, westerlies make the eastern sections of oceans warmer than the western sections

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 and 2

Thirunelly temple


  • Prelims –Art and Culture

Context: Recently, the Indian National Trust for Art and Cultural Heritage (INTACH) has urged the government to conserve the Thirunelly temple.

About Thirunelly temple:-

IMAGE SOURCE: temple architecture types – Bing images

  • The Thirunelly Maha Vishnu temple is an iconic temple in Wayanad, Kerala near Brahmagiri hills.
  •  It is also known as ”Sahyamala Kshetram” and ”Kashi of the South”.
  • Thirunelly Temple embodies classical, traditional Kerala architecture.
  •  A famous pilgrim centre, this temple, which is dedicated to Lord Vishnu.
  • It is considered an important pilgrimage centre for Hindus.
  • It is located at the confluence of three rivers – Papanasini, the holy river, which is believed to have the power to wash away sins, Kudamurutti, and Koothappuzha.
  • The temple has a unique circular structure made of granite stones, which is believed to have been constructed by Lord Brahma himself.
    • The shrine is shielded with 30 granite columns and the ground is paved with huge square pieces of granite.
  • It has beautiful architecture and features intricate carvings, mural paintings, and sculptures.
  • Thirunelli Temple is the only temple in the world where the devotees can perform all the rituals related to one’s life, starting from birth to death and life after death.
  • On the western side of the temple is the cave temple Gunnika, dedicated to Lord Shiva.

MUST READ: Srisailam Temple



Q.1) The Prime Minister recently inaugurated the new Circuit House near Somnath Temple Veraval. Which of the following statements are correct regarding Somnath Temple? (2022)

  1. Somnath Temple is one of the Jyotirlinga shrines.
  2. A description of the Somnath Temple was given by Al-Biruni.
  3. Pran Pratishtha of Somnath Temple (installation of the present-day temple) was done by President S. Radhakrishnan.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1,2 and 3

Q.2) With reference to Chausath Yogini Temple situated near Morena, consider the following statements: (2021)

  1. It is a circular temple built during the reign of the Kachchhapaghata Dynasty.
  2. It is the only circular temple built in India.
  3. It was meant to promote the Vaishnava cult in the region.
  4. Its design has given rise to a popular belief that it was the inspiration behind the Indian Parliament building.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 4
  4. 2, 3 and 4

Tughlaqabad Fort


  • Prelims – Art and Culture

Context: Recently, the Delhi HC asked the ASI to remove encroachments around the Tughlaqabad Fort.

About Tughlaqabad Fort:-

  • The Tughlaqabad Fort in Delhi which is in complete ruins now, was built by Ghiyasudddin Tughlaq.
    • Ghiyasudddin Tughlaq: The first Sultan of the Tughlaq Dynasty in 1321.
  • Curse of the Tomb: The legend has it that Ghiyasuddin Tughlaq wanted a powerful fortress which could stand up to a Mongol assault. Hence, soon after he ascended the throne, he began to work on the township and made it mandatory for all the workers of Delhi to work on the fort.
    •  Around the same time, Hazrat Nizamuddin Auliya, a mystic Sufi Saint was building a Baoli (step well) at his khanqah (dwelling place). The workers worked all day at the fort and night, they would work on the Baoli. This angered the Sultan.
    • He banned the supply of oil to Nizamuddin so that the lamps could not be lit at the construction site of the Baoli.
    • It infuriated Nizamuddin Auliya and he used his mystical powers to turn the water of the well into oil.
    • He also cursed Tughlaqabad saying, “Ya rahe ujjar ya base gujjar,” (either it will be left desolate or occupied by the nomadic herdsmen).
  • The fortified city was built in four years on the rocky terrain, as a defence mechanism.
  • It is in two parts, the citadel and palaces along the southern walls forming one unit and the city to the north the other.
  • Across the main entrance from the south is Ghiyathu’d-Din’s tomb is located.
  • It is faced with red sandstone relieved by marble, and with batter on the exterior.
  • It is enclosed within high walls forming an irregular pentagon.
  • Ghiyathu’d-Din’s successor, Muhammad Tughluq (1325-51), added the small fortress of ‘Adilabad’ on the hill south of Tughluqabad, with which it shares the main characteristics of construction.

MUST READ: Raigad fort



Q.1) With reference to Indian history, consider the following statements: (2022)

  1. The first Mongol invasion of India happened during the reign of Jalal-ud-din Khalji.
  2. During the reign of Ala-ud-din Khalji, one Mongol assault marched up to Delhi and besieged the city.
  3. Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq temporarily lost portions of the northwest of his kingdom to Mongols.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 and 2
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 3 only

Q.2) Which one of the following statements is correct? (2021)

  1. Ajanta Caves lie in the gorge of the Waghora River.
  2. Sanchi Stupa lies in the gorge of the Chambal River.
  3. Pandu – lena cave shrines lie in the gorge of the Narmada River.
  4. Amaravati Stupa lies in the gorge of the Godavari River.



  • Prelims –Science and Technology

Context: Recent studies show that Galaxy mergers ignite ‘quasars’.

About Quasars:-

IMAGE SOURCE: Quasars INFO – Bing images

  • Quasars are the brightest and the most powerful objects in the universe.
  • A quasar is an extremely luminous active galactic nucleus (AGN), in which a supermassive black hole with mass ranging from millions to billions of times the mass of the Sun is surrounded by a gaseous accretion disk.
  • As gas in the disk falls towards the black hole, energy is released in the form of electromagnetic radiation.
  • The power radiated by quasars is enormous.
    •  The most powerful quasars have luminosities thousands of times greater than a galaxy such as the Milky Way.
  • Most active galaxies have a supermassive black hole at the centre which sucks in surrounding objects.
  • Quasars are formed by the energy emitted by materials spiralling around a black hole right before being sucked into it.




Q.1) Which one of the following statements best reflects the idea behind the “Fractional Orbital Bombardment System” often talked about in media? (2022)

  1. A hypersonic missile is launched into space to counter the asteroid approaching the Earth and explode it in space.
  2. A spacecraft lands on another planet after making several orbital motions.
  3. A missile is put into a stable orbit around the Earth and deorbits over a target on the Earth.
  4. A spacecraft moves along a comet with the same surface. speed and places a probe on its

Q.2) If a major solar storm (solar flare) reaches the Earth, which of the following are the possible effects on the Earth? (2022)

  1. GPS and navigation systems could fail.
  2. Tsunamis could occur in equatorial regions.
  3. Power grids could be damaged.
  4. Intense auroras could occur over much of the Earth.
  5. Forest fires could take place over much of the planet.
  6. Orbits of the satellites could be disturbed.
  7. Shortwave radio communication of the aircraft flying over polar regions could be interrupted.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1, 2, 4 and 5 only
  2. 2, 3, 5, 6 and 7 only
  3. 1, 3, 4, 6 and 7 only
  4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6 and 7

Wheat blast


  • Prelims –Environment and Ecology

Context: Recent spread of the Wheat blast threatens food security globally.

About Wheat Blast:-

  • The wheat blast is a fungal disease.
  •  It affects wheat production in tropical and subtropical regions.
  • It is caused by Magnaporthe oryzae pathotype Triticum (MoT).
  •  It was identified in Brazil in 1985.
  • The fungus infects wild and cultivated grasses, most notably rice and wheat.
  • It spreads through infected seeds, and crop residues as well as by spores that can travel long distances in the air.
  • It spread to major-wheat producing areas in the country and then to other South American countries like Bolivia, Paraguay, and Argentina.
  • Asia’s first outbreak of this pathogenic wheat blast was reported in Bangladesh in 2016.

MUST READ: India and Wheat Exports



Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022)

  1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
  2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
  3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
  4. The Board has overseas offices in Dubai and Moscow.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

  1. 1 and 3
  2. 2 and 4
  3. 3 and 4
  4. 1 and 4

Q.2) “System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practised, results in: (2022)

  1. Reduced seed requirement
  2. Reduced methane production
  3. Reduced electricity consumption

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Ajeya Warrior 2023


  • Prelims –Defence

Context: Recently, the exercise ‘Ajeya Warrior 2023’ took place.

About Ajeya Warrior 2023:-

  • It is a bilateral training exercise between the armies of India and the UK.
  • This is the 7th edition of the exercise.
  • It aims to improve interoperability between the two forces while carrying out operations in accordance with UN mandates.
  • The exercise will witness the participation of an infantry company from India and a unit of equal strength from the British Army.
  • The soldiers of both countries will practice using each other’s weapons, war tactics, equipment, war strategies, and procedures for conducting combined military operations in difficult situations.
  • In addition, there will also be a number of expert academic discussions on a range of topics of common interest, such as the combined arms concept, operation logistics, sharing of joint force experience, etc.

MUST READ: India and UK – Free Trade Agreement Negotiations



Q.1) Broad-based Trade and Investment Agreement (BTIA)’ is sometimes seen in the news in the context of negotiations held between India and (2016)

  1. European Union
  2. Gulf Cooperation Council
  3. Organization for Economic Cooperation and Development
  4. Shanghai Cooperation Organization

Q.2) The term ‘Digital Single Market Strategy’ seen in the news refers to (2016)

  1. ASEAN
  2. BRICS
  3. EU
  4. G20

Gig Workers


  • Mains – GS 2 (Governance) and GS 3 (Economy)

Context: The Rajasthan Government is about to bring the Rajasthan Platform-based Gig Workers (Registration and Welfare) Bill, 2023, which has stringent provisions against errant aggregators, including barring them from operating in the State.

About Gig Economy:

  • A gig economy is a free market system in which organisations hire or contract workers for a short span of time.
  • Simply put, the positions are temporary to meet the company’s requirements by having short-term engagements.
  • Startups like Ola, Uber, Zomato, and Swiggy have established themselves as the main source of the gig economy in India.

India and Gig Economy:

  • In 2020, 7.7 million workers were engaged in the gig economy.
  • The gig workforce is expected to expand to 5 million workers by 2029-30.
  • At present about 47% of the gig work is in medium skilled jobs, about 22% in high skilled, and about 31% in low skilled jobs.
  • Trend shows the concentration of workers in medium skills is gradually declining and that of the low skilled and high skilled is increasing.
  • It may be expected that while the domination of medium skills would continue till 2030, gig work with other skills will emerge.

About Gig workers:

  • According to the Code on Social Security, 2020 (India), “A gig worker is a person who performs work or participates in work arrangements and earns from such activities, outside of the traditional employer-employee relationship.”
  • They are independent contractors, online platform workers, contract firm workers, on-call workers and temporary workers.

Reasons for a rise in Gig Workers:

  • Post Pandemic: The trend accelerated during the 2020 COVID-19 pandemic, the gig economy experienced significant increases as gig workers delivered necessities to home-bound consumers, and those whose jobs had been eliminated turned to part-time and contract work for income.
  • Freedom to work from anywhere: These types of positions facilitate independent contracting work, with many of them not requiring a freelancer to come into an office.
  • Wide Range of Applicants: Employers also have a wider range of applicants to choose from because they don’t have to hire someone based on their proximity.
  • Rise of Technology and Internet: Rise of fast internet and smartphones have made it easier to work from anywhere easily.
  • Convenient for Small Organisations: Employers who cannot afford to hire full-time employees to do all the work will often hire part-time or temporary employees to take care of busier times or specific projects.
  • More income with more work: People often find they need to move or take multiple positions to afford the lifestyle they want. It’s also common to change careers many times throughout a lifetime, so the gig economy can be viewed as a reflection of this occurring on a large scale.
  • Benefits Employers: Employers do not need to provide related benefits, such as medical insurance, Provident Fund, and year-end bonuses which make it a better option for them to pay only for work on a unit basis.
  • Work for All: Students can choose lower-skilled jobs and work without academic or professional qualifications. Retirees, housewives, etc. may find it difficult to find part-time jobs on weekdays, but now they can make good use of their spare time to earn extra money.

Issues related to Gig Workers in India:

  • Lack of Job and Social Security: Many gig workers in India are not covered by labour codes and do not have access to benefits such as health insurance and retirement plans.
    • Additionally, gig workers often do not receive the same level of protection as traditional employees in the event of injury or illness.
  • Digital Divide: The gig economy heavily relies on technology and internet access, this creates a barrier for those who lack access to these resources, and further exacerbates income inequality.
  • Lack of Data: There is a lack of data and research on the gig economy in India which makes it difficult for policy makers to understand its size, scope, and impact on the economy and workforce.
  • Exploitation by Companies: Gig workers in India are often paid less than traditional employees and may not have the same legal protections.
    • Some companies may also exploit gig workers by misclassifying them as independent contractors to avoid liability and avoid paying taxes.

Steps Taken by Government of India for Gig Workers

  • Code of Social Security, 2020: The Government has formulated the Code on Social Security, 2020 which envisages framing of suitable social security schemes for gig workers and platform workers on matters relating to life and disability cover, accident insurance, health and maternity benefits, old age protection, etc.
    • However, these provisions under the Code have not come into force.
  • Platform workers are those whose work is based on online software apps or digital platforms. Non-platform gig workers are generally casual wage workers and own-account workers in the conventional sectors, working part-time or full time.
  • e-Shram Portal: The Government has also launched e-Shram portal in 2021 for registration and creation of a Comprehensive National Database of Unorganized Workers including gig workers and platform workers.
    • It allows a person to register himself or herself on the portal on a self-declaration basis, which is spread across around 400 occupations.

Way Forward:

  • Social Security Blanket: The government should ensure that gig workers have access to social security programs such as pension schemes and health insurance to ensure financial security for older workers.
  • Education and Training: The government should invest in education and training programs for gig workers to improve their skills and increase their earning potential.
  • Encourage Fair Competition and Innovation: Government can encourage fair competition by having regulations that prevent companies from misclassifying workers as independent contractors and by enforcing fair trade practices.

Source:  Hindustan Times

50 Years of Kesavananda Bharati Case and its Legacy


  • Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance)

Context: The seminal ruling in Kesavananda Bharati, in which the Supreme Court laid down the “basic structure” doctrine on the limits of Parliament’s power to amend the Constitution, recently completed 50 years.

  • The Supreme Court’s 13 judges bench in the Kesavananda Bharati case, 1973 articulated the “doctrine of basic structure”.
  • According to this doctrine, the Parliament cannot use its amending power under Article 368 to destroy the basic structure of the Indian constitution such as democracy, secularism, federalism, judicial independence, etc.
  • The basic structure doctrine is a judicial principle that limits the power of the Parliament of India to amend the Constitution.

The significance of this case:

  • Established Supremacy of the Constitution: It established the supremacy of the Constitution over the Parliament and the executive and limited their power to amend the Constitution without affecting its basic features.
  • Protected Fundamental Rights: It preserved the democratic and federal nature of the Constitution and protected the rights and freedoms of the citizens from arbitrary or authoritarian amendments.
  • Judicial Review: It asserted the judicial review power of the Supreme Court to examine the validity of any constitutional amendment and strike it down if it violated the basic structure doctrine.
  • Primacy of Fundamental Rights over DPSPs: It resolved the conflict between the fundamental rights and the directive principles of state policy, and harmonized them by giving primacy to the former over the latter.
  • Judiciary power to define “basic structure”: It paved the way for subsequent judgments that expanded and enriched the basic structure doctrine, such as the Minerva Mills case (1980), which added secularism and judicial independence as basic features, and the Indira Gandhi case (1975), which invalidated the 39th Amendment that sought to immunize the election of the Prime Minister from judicial scrutiny.

Doctrine of Basic Structure:

  • The Constitutional Bench in Kesavananda Bharati case ruled by a 7-6 verdict that Parliament could amend any part of the Constitution so long as it did not alter or amend the basic structure or essential features of the Constitution.
  • However, the court did not define the term ‘basic structure’, and only listed a few principles — federalism, secularism, democracy — as being its part.
  • The ‘basic structure’ doctrine has since been interpreted to include –
    • The supremacy of the Constitution,
    • The rule of law,
    • Independence of the judiciary,
    • Doctrine of separation of powers,
    • Sovereign democratic republic,
    • The parliamentary system of government,
    • The principle of free and fair elections,
    • Welfare state, etc.
  • An example of the application of basic structure is the SR Bommai case (1994).
    • In this case the Supreme Court upheld the dismissal of BJP governments by the President following the demolition of the Babri Masjid, invoking a threat to secularism by these governments.

Application of the doctrine in 50 years:

  • Since 1973, the year of the Kesavananda Bharati judgment, the Constitution has been amended more than 60 times.
  • In these five decades, the Supreme Court has tested constitutional amendments against the doctrine of basic structure in at least 16 cases.
  • In nine of these 16 cases, the Supreme Court has upheld constitutional amendments that had been challenged on grounds of violation of the basic structure doctrine.
  • Six of these cases relate to reservations — including the quota for Other Backward Classes (OBC) and Economically Weaker Section (EWS), and reservations in promotions.

National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC):

  • The Supreme Court has struck down a constitutional amendment entirely just once — The Constitution (Ninety-ninth Amendment) Act, 2014.
  • The Act established the National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC), the body that would have been responsible for the appointment and transfer of judges, replacing the current Collegium system.
  • The amendment was struck down by a five-judge Constitution Bench in 2015 on the grounds that it threatened “judicial independence”, which the court ruled was a basic feature of the Constitution.

Partially struck down:

  • In six instances since 1973, including the Kesavananda ruling itself, the Supreme Court has “partially struck down” a constitutional amendment.
  • In all these cases, the provision that was struck down related to the denial of judicial review.
  • Just one of these six rulings involve an amendment that was not made during the Indira Gandhi era — in Kihoto Hollohan, which dealt with the Tenth Schedule.

Kihoto Hollohan vs Zachillhu And Others (1992):

  • The Supreme Court upheld The Constitution (Fifty-second Amendment) Act that introduced the Tenth Schedule or the so-called “anti-defection law” in the Constitution.
  • The only portion of the amendment that was struck down was the one that stated that the decisions of the Speaker relating to disqualification cannot be judicially reviewed.
  • In 2021, a three-judge Bench of the court struck down a portion of The Constitution (Ninety-seventh Amendment) Act, 2011, but on procedural — not basic structure — grounds.
  • The amendment changed the legal regime for cooperative societies

Way Forward:

The Basic Structure Doctrine is a cornerstone of the Indian Constitution, which has been instrumental in ensuring the preservation of the fundamental principles of democracy and protecting the rights of citizens. Its establishment in the Kesavananda Bharati case is a testament to the strength and resilience of India’s democratic institutions and the judiciary’s commitment to upholding the Constitution.

Source:   Indian Express

Practice MCQs

Daily Practice MCQs

Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the Thirunelly temple:

  1. It is located at the confluence of three rivers – Papanasini, , Kudamurutti, and Koothappuzha.
  2. It is the only temple in the world where the devotees can perform all the rituals related to one’s life, starting from birth to death and life after death.

Which of the statements given above i/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) Which of the statements given below is not correct regarding the United Nations Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues (UNPFII)?

  1. It is a high-level advisory body to the UN Economic and Social Council.
  2. It has the mandate to deal with indigenous issues related to economic and social development, culture, the environment, education, health and human rights.
  3. The 22nd Session of the United Nations Permanent Forum on Indigenous Issues (UNPFII) will convene in New York from 17 to 28 April 2023.
  4. It has the theme ““Indigenous peoples, business, autonomy and the human rights principles of due diligence including free, prior and informed consent”.

Q.3) Manamadurai pottery recently receives Geographical Indication Tag belong to

  1. Kerala
  2. Odisha
  3. Tamil Nadu
  4. Telangana

Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!!

ANSWERS FOR ’ 27th April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st

ANSWERS FOR 26th April – Daily Practice MCQs

Answers- Daily Practice MCQs

Q.1) – c

Q.2) – a

Q.3) – d

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