DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam –6th June 2023

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  • June 7, 2023
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Duty-free quota-free (DFQF) scheme


  • Prelims –Economy

Context: As per recent reports, about 85 per cent of 11,000 products offered at zero tariffs by India to least developed countries (LDCs) under the duty-free quota-free (DFQF) scheme of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) remains unutilised.

About the duty-free quota-free (DFQF) scheme:-


  • Background: The decision to provide duty-free quota-free (DFQF) access for least developed countries (LDCs) was first taken at the WTO Hong Kong Ministerial Meeting in 2005.
    • Least developed countries (LDCs): The WTO recognizes as least-developed countries (LDCs) those countries, which have been designated as such by the United Nations.
      • There are at present 48 LDCs on the UN list.
      • 31 of these are members of the WTO.
    • It requires all developed and developing country members to provide preferential market access for all products originating from all LDCs.
    • India became the first developing country to extend this facility to LDCs in 2008.
      • It provided market access to 85% of India’s total tariff lines.
      • It aimed to integrate LDCs into the global trading system and improve their trading opportunities.
    • The scheme was expanded in 2014 providing preferential market access on about 2% of India’s tariff lines to LDCs.
    • India offers 11,506 preferential tariff lines to LDCs of which 10, 991 are duty-free.
      • Of the duty-free tariff lines, 1,129 are agricultural goods and the remaining 9,862 are non-agricultural goods.

Key findings of WTO data for 2020:-

  • 85% of India’s tariff lines show a zero utilisation rate compared to 64% by China.
    • Among the remaining, only 8% demonstrate a utilisation rate of above 95% against 17% by China.
  • Noteworthy amounts of LDC exports are entering under non-preferential (most favoured nation) tariff routes into India even though they are covered by the Indian preference scheme.
  • There is a significant variation between the beneficiary LDCs.
  • Guinea and Bangladesh: show the highest amount of eligible imports
  • Benin: reports a utilisation rate of 98%, the highest of all beneficiary countries.
  • Afghanistan: Fruits and nuts worth $325 million exported were entered under the most-favoured-nation (MFN) despite the preference margin of 28 percentage points being offered under the Indian preference scheme.
    • Most-favoured-nation (MFN): treating other people equally.
      • Under the WTO agreements, countries cannot normally discriminate between their trading partners.
      • If a country grants someone a special favour (such as a lower customs duty rate for one of their products), they have to do the same for all other WTO members.
      • This principle is known as most-favoured-nation (MFN) treatment.
    • Chad: exports of mineral fuels, oils and products, etc, of a value of $48 million are entering India under MFN.

The World Trade Organization (WTO):-

IMAGE SOURCE: slideserve.com

  • The WTO is the international organization whose primary purpose is to open trade for the benefit of all.
  • Objective: to help producers of goods and services, exporters, and importers conduct their business.
  • WTO agreements are negotiated and signed by the bulk of the world’s trading nations and ratified in their parliaments.
  • Ministerial Conference: the topmost decision-making body of the WTO is the Ministerial Conference, which usually meets every two years. (UPSCE CSE:12th WTO Ministerial Conference)

Historical Background:-

  • The General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade (GATT) traces its origins to the 1944 Bretton Woods Conference, which established two key institutions, the International Monetary Fund (IMF) and the World Bank.
  • An agreement as the GATT signed by 23 countries in Geneva in 1947 came into force on Jan 1, 1948, with the following purposes:
    • To phase out the use of import quotas.
    • to reduce tariffs on merchandise trade.
  • Uruguay Round (1987-1994): culminated in the Marrakesh Agreement, which established the World Trade Organization (WTO).
    • The WTO incorporates the principles of the GATT and provides a more enduring institutional framework for implementing and extending them.
  • The GATT 1994 is an international treaty binding upon all WTO Members.
    • It is only concerned with trade in goods.
  • Members: it has had 164 members since 2016.
  • WTO is not an UN-specialized agency.
  • It is the only global international organization dealing with the rules of trade between nations.
  • It is a forum for governments to negotiate trade agreements.
  • It is a place for them to settle trade disputes.
  • It is a place where member governments try to sort out the trade problems they face with each other.




Q.1) “Rapid Financing Instrument” and “Rapid Credit Facility” are related to the provisions of lending by which of the following: (2022)

  1. Asian Development Bank
  2. International Monetary Fund
  3. United Nations Environment Programme Finance Initiative
  4. World Bank

Q.2) With reference to Trade-Related Investment Measures (TRIMS), which of the following statements is/are correct? (2020)

  1. Quantitative restrictions on imports by foreign investors are prohibited.
  2. They apply to investment measures related to trade in both goods and services.
  3. They are not concerned with the regulation of foreign investment.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Gulf of Mannar


  • Prelims –Environment and Ecology

Context: The Gulf of Mannar became the first Marine Biosphere Reserve in the South East Asia.

About the Gulf of Mannar:-

IMAGE SOURCE: casmbenvis. nic. in

  • Gulf of Mannar is an inlet of the Indian Ocean, between south-eastern India and western Sri Lanka.
  • It is bounded to the northeast by Rameswaram (island), Adam’s (Rama’s) Bridge (a chain of shoals), and Mannar Island.
  • The gulf receives several rivers, including the Tambraparni (India) and the Aruvi (Sri Lanka).
  • The port of Tuticorin is on the coast.
  • It has been renowned for its highly productive pearl banks and religious significance.
  • The Government of India designated it as the country’s first Marine Biosphere Reserve in 1989.
  • Gulf of Mannar National Park has also been identified as the important Bird Area by BNHS-Birdlife International because of its rich avian fauna.
  • Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve has been identified as an Important Marine Mammals Area of the World by IUCN due to its dugong population and other marine mammals presence.

Key life forms found in the Gulf of Mannar:-

  • Dugong (Sea cow): also called ‘Sea Cow’ is one of the four surviving species in the Order Sirenia and it is the only existing species of herbivorous mammal that lives exclusively in the sea. (UPSC PRELIMS: India’s first dugong conservation reserve)
    • Conservation Status:-
      • IUCN Red List status: Vulnerable
      • Wild (Life) Protection Act, 1972: Schedule I
      • CITES: Appendix I
    • Sea turtles: Four of the seven species of sea turtles found worldwide are reported to occur in the Gulf of Mannar Biosphere Reserve.
    • These are:-
      • Olive ridley (Lepidochelys olivacea): IUCN status (Vulnerable)
        • They are best known for their unique mass nesting called Arribada, where thousands of females come together on the same beach to lay eggs.
        • Gahirmatha Marine Sanctuary: It is the world’s largest nesting beach for Olive Ridley Sea Turtles.
      • Green (Cheloniamydas)
      • Hawksbill (Eretmochelys imbricata)
      • Leatherback (Dermochelys coriacea)
    • All four species of sea turtles that occur in these coastal waters are protected under Schedule I of the Indian Wildlife Protection Act (1972), as well as listed in Appendix I of the Convention of International Trade in Endangered Species of Wild Fauna and Flora (CITES).
    • Lobsters: Stock enhancement and fattening of lobsters Panulirus homarus and P. polyphagous in this region are important for the livelihood of coastal fishermen.
    • Crabs: Of the 11 important commercial crabs in India, six crab species occur
    • Sea snakes: A total of 12 species of sea snakes have been reported in the Gulf of Mannar region.
    • Coastal Birds: 187 species of birds were reported from the Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park.
    • Coral reef ecosystem:-
      • Corals and coral reefs of the Gulf of Mannar National Park form an essential ecosystem, which supports a variety of ecologically and economically important marine life. (UPSC CSE: Coral Reefs)
      • The islands in the Gulf of Mannar Marine National Park are divided into three groups namely, the Mandapam group (seven Islands), the Keelakarai group (7 Islands) and the Tuticorin group (7 Islands).

MUST READ: Development of Great Nicobar



Q.1) “Biorock technology” is talked about in which one of the following situations? (2022)

  1. Restoration of damaged coral reefs
  2. Development of building materials using plant residues
  3. Identification of areas for exploration/extraction of shale gas
  4. Providing salt licks for wild animals in forests/protected areas

Q.2) Which of the following Protected Areas are located in the Cauvery basin? (2020)

  1. Nagarhole National Park
  2. Papikonda National Park
  3. Sathyamangalam Tiger Reserve
  4. Wayanad Wildlife Sanctuary

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 3 and 4 only
  3. 1, 3 and 4 only
  4. 1, 2, 3 and 4



  • Prelims –Polity

Context: Recently, the Karnataka High Court observed that “necrophilia” is an erotic attraction to corpses.

About Necrophilia:-

  • It is a psychosexual disorder, classified under the DSM-IV, among a group of disorders, called “paraphilias”.
    • Paraphilias: include disorders like paedophilia, exhibitionism, and sexual masochism.
  • Necrophilia could be the result of rage, experimentation, or lust rather than sexual necessity or habit.
  • As of date, the IPC does not list “necrophilia” as a specific offence under sexual offences mentioned in the code.
  • The court mentioned that it could be brought under Section 297 as causing “indignity to any human corpse” if someone trespasses into a place for performing funeral rites or a depository for the remains of the dead.
  • Section 297 of IPC:-
    • The knowledge that any person’s feelings are likely to be wounded or their religion is likely to be insulted by such an act will make it an offence under Section 297.

The ruling of Karnataka High Court in Rangaraju @Vajapeyi vs State of Karnataka” case:-

  • It held that having sexual intercourse with a woman’s dead body would not attract the offence of rape, punishable under Section 376 of the Indian Penal Code, as there is no provision in the IPC for it. (UPSC CSE: Rape and sexual crimes law in India)
  • The provisions of Sections 375 and 377 of the Indian Penal Code make it clear that the dead body cannot be called a human or person.
    • Thereby, these provisions of the IPC would not apply.
  • The court clarified that sexual intercourse on a dead body is nothing but necrophilia.
    • Hence, it is not a punishable offence under Section 376 (punishment for rape).
  • National Human Rights Commission’s advisory, on “Upholding the Dignity and Protecting the Rights of the Dead:
    • The court invoked the 2021 advisory of NHRC, which states that there cannot be any physical exploitation or discrimination in the treatment of the body.
    • It also mentions the right to a decent and timely burial.
    • It also asked the Centre to amend the law.

Recommendation of Karnataka High Court to the centre:-

  • To amend Section 377 of IPC
    • To include dead bodies of men, women, and animals.
    • To protect the dignity of the dead.
  • Criminalising necrophilia: It also offered an alternative that the Centre brings in a separate penal provision to criminalise necrophilia with life imprisonment up to 10 years with a fine.

The ruling of Supreme Court in Parmanand Katara, Advocate vs Union of India (1989):-

  • The court relied on and held that the dignity of a dead body must be maintained.
  • It established a corresponding duty on the state to ensure decent cremation is served to the person.
  • The right to dignity and fair treatment under Article 21 of the Constitution of India is not only available to a living man but also to his body after his death.

Countries that prohibit necrophilia:-

  • The United Kingdom’s Sexual Offences Act, 2003, includes necrophilia as an offence under Section 70, which makes “sexual penetration of a corpse” an offence punishable with six months to two years imprisonment.
  • Canada, New Zealand, and South Africa, too, prohibit necrophilia under different laws.

Status in India:-

  • India does not have any specific provision punishing necrophilia.
  • The Karnataka High Court made recommendations to the Central government for including it under Section 377 of the IPC or as a new provision.

MUST READ: Marital Rape



Q.1) ‘Right to Privacy’ is protected under which Article of the constitution of India? (2021)

  1. Article15
  2. Article 19
  3. Article 21
  4. Article 29

Q.2) Other than the Fundamental Rights, which of the following parts of the Constitution of India reflect/reflect the principles and provisions of the Universal Declaration of Human Rights (1948)? (2020)

  1. Preamble
  2. Directive Principles of State Policy
  3. Fundamental Duties

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Salt caverns


  • Prelims –Geography

Context: Recently, a Government-owned engineering firm studied the prospects of developing petroleum reserves in Rajasthan’s salt caverns.

About salt caverns:-

IMAGE SOURCE: ResearchGate

  • Salt caverns are created by dissolving salt deposits with water, and then pumping out the brine (salt water) to create a hollow space.
  • This process is much faster and cheaper than excavating rock caverns and can be done in flat or low-lying areas where salt deposits are found.
    • Rock caverns: created by excavating hard rock formations, such as granite or basalt, using explosives or mechanical methods.


  • Salt caverns are naturally well sealed.
    • The salt lining acts as a natural barrier against liquid and gas migration, preventing oil from escaping or contaminating groundwater. (UPSC CSE: Groundwater Mapping )
  • They have low oil absorbency, which prevents leakage and contamination of the stored oil.
  • They are relatively easy and cheap to create and operate.
  • The process of solution mining is faster and simpler than excavating rock caverns, which requires more time, labour, and equipment.
  • They are suitable for storing natural gas, compressed air and hydrogen. (UPSC CSE: LNG & its climate impact)
  • Salt caverns can also be located closer to the surface than rock caverns, which reduces the drilling costs and the risk of leakage.
  • Salt caverns can withstand high pressure and temperature variations, allowing for faster filling and emptying of oil.
    • This makes them ideal for emergencies or market fluctuations when the oil needs to be released or stored quickly.


  • Salt caverns require a large amount of water.
  • The water used for solution mining has to be treated to prevent corrosion and bacterial growth, which adds to the operational costs.
  • The water also has to be disposed of safely after extracting the brine (water with dissolved salt), which can pose environmental challenges.
    • The brine can contain harmful substances such as heavy metals or radioactive elements, which have to be removed before discharging into surface water or injecting into deep wells.
  • Salt caverns are limited by the availability and quality of salt deposits.

MUST READ: Strategic Petroleum Reserves (SPR)



Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2020)

  1. Coal ash contains arsenic, lead and mercury.
  2. Coal-fired power plants release sulphur dioxide and oxides of nitrogen into the environment.
  3. High ash content is observed in Indian coal.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) According to India’s National Policy on Biofuels, which of the following can be used as raw materials for the production of biofuels? (2020)

  1. Cassava
  2. Damaged wheat grains
  3. Groundnut seeds
  4. Horse gram
  5. Rotten potatoes
  6. Sugar beet

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1, 2, 5 and 6 only
  2. 1, 3, 4 and 6 only
  3. 2, 3, 4 and 5 only
  4. 1, 2, 3, 4, 5 and 6

Amchang Wildlife Sanctuary


  • Prelims –Environment and Ecology

Context: Recently, Indian Army generated a unique ecosystem for peaceful co-existence with wild elephants in Amchang Wildlife Sanctuary, Assam.

About Amchang Wildlife Sanctuary:-

IMAGE SOURCE: researchgate.net

  • The Amchang Wildlife Sanctuary is located on the eastern fringe of Guwahati, Assam.
  • It comprises three Reserve forests:-
    • Khanapara
    • Amchang, and
    • South Amchang
  • It stretches from the Brahmaputra River in the north to the hilly forests of Meghalaya in the south, forming a continuous forest belt through Meghalaya’s Maradakdola Reserve Forests. (UPSC MAINS: Monitoring China’s Moves on the Brahmaputra)
  • It was declared a wildlife sanctuary in 2004 by the government of Assam. (UPSC MAINS: Human-wildlife conflict)
  • Flora: Khasi Hill Sal Forests, East Himalayan Mixed Deciduous Forest, Eastern Alluvial Secondary Semi-Evergreen Forests and East Himalayan Sal Forests.
  • Fauna: It is home to Mammals (Flying Fox, Assamese Macaque, Slow Loris, etc.), Birds (Lesser and Greater Adjutant, White-backed Vulture, Slender-billed Vulture), Reptiles (Python, Monitor Lizard, Indian Cobra etc.).
  • Tree yellow butterflies (banana harina): found at the Amchang wildlife sanctuary, which are indigenous to Thailand, Malaysia, Singapore and northeast India.

MUST READ: Tungareshwar Wildlife Sanctuary



Q.1) Which one of the following protected areas is well-known for the conservation of a sub-species of the Indian swamp deer (Barasingha) that thrives well on hard ground and is exclusively graminivorous? (2020)

  1. Kanha National Park
  2. Manas National Park
  3. Mudumalai Wildlife Sanctuary
  4. Tal Chhapar Wildlife Sanctuary

Q.2) Which of the following are the most likely places to find the musk deer in its natural habitat? (2020)

  1. Askot Wildlife Sanctuary
  2. Gangotri National Park
  3. Kishanpur Wildlife Sanctuary
  4. Manas National Park

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 3 and 4 only
  4. 1 and 4 only



  • Prelims –Science and Technology

Context: Scientists recently, found a potential new antibiotic named Abaucin, with the help of machine learning.

About Abaucin:-

  • This antibiotic compromises the normal function of a protein called CCR2.
  • It was originally been developed to treat diabetes.
  • It appears to work by disrupting lipoprotein trafficking in baumannii.
  • Working: Based on genetic studies, the researchers believe that abduction could be preventing lipoprotein produced inside the bacteria from moving to the outer membrane.
  • Abaucin is also a “species-selective” antibiotic.
    • It only disrupts the growth of A. baumannii, not other Gram-negative bacteria.

Acinetobacter baumanni

  • It is a Gram-negative bacteria.
    • Gram-negative bacteria: it has a protective outer membrane that allows it to resist antibiotics.
  • It has been associated with hospital-acquired infections in India.
  • It was acknowledged to be a “red alert” pathogen because of its exceptional ability to develop resistance to all currently available antibiotics. (UPSC CSE: Antimicrobial Resistance (AMR))

MUST READ: World Antimicrobial Awareness Week 2022



Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2022)

  1. Biofilms can form on medical implants within human tissues.
  2. Biofilms can form on food and food processing surfaces.
  3. Biofilms can exhibit antibiotic resistance.

Which of the statements given above is correct?

  1. 1 and 2 only
  2. 2 and 3 only
  3. 1 and 3 only
  4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (2022)

  1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.
  2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut.
  3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. 1 and 3
  4. 2 and 3

Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC+)


  • Prelims –Important Institutions

Context: The OPEC+ agreed on a new oil output deal recently.

About (OPEC+):-

IMAGE SOURCE: watchers. ie

The Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC)

  • It is a permanent, intergovernmental organization.
  • It was created at the Baghdad Conference in 1960.
  • Founding members: Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, Saudi Arabia, and Venezuela.
  • Objective: to manage the supply of oil in an effort to set the price of oil in the world market, in order to avoid fluctuations that might affect the economies of both producing and purchasing countries.
  • HQ: Vienna, Austria.
  • Membership: OPEC membership is open to any country that is a substantial exporter of oil and which shares the ideals of the organization.
    • It has 14 members: Saudi Arabia, Iran, Iraq, Kuwait, and Venezuela (1960), Qatar (1961), Indonesia (1962), Libya (1962), Abu Dhabi (1967), Algeria (1969), Nigeria (1971), Ecuador (1973), Angola (2007), Equatorial Guinea (2017), and the Republic of the Congo (2018).
  • OPEC’s 14 members control 35 per cent of global oil supplies and 82 per cent of proven reserves.
  • With the addition of the 10 Non-OPEC nations, notable among them Russia, Mexico and Kazakhstan, those shares increase to 55 per cent and 90 per cent respectively. (UPSC CSE: OPEC)


  • OPEC+ includes the Organization of the Petroleum Exporting Countries (OPEC) and its allies.
  • It pumps around 40% of the world’s crude.
  • OPEC-plus countries include Azerbaijan, Bahrain, Brunei, Kazakhstan, Malaysia, Mexico, Oman, Russia, South Sudan and Sudan.

MUST READ: Oil for Emergencies



Q.1) The term ‘West Taxes Intermediate’, sometimes found in news to a grade of (2020)

  1. Crude oil
  2. Bullion
  3. Rare earth elements
  4. Uranium


Adverse Possession in India


  • Mains – GS 2 (Governance)

Context: As per the recent report by 22nd Law Commission there is no justification for introducing any change in the law relating to adverse possession.

About adverse possession:

  • Adverse possession essentially means when a tenant possesses the property of the owner when they are not legally entitled to do the same overtlye., without any attempt regarding the concealment from the owner.
  • In such a situation, if they continue to hold the property unlawfully for more than 12 years and the owner, despite having the same, does not take any action over these years, they would lose their right to claim the property by filing a suit in the court of law upon the expiration of this term.
  • The concept originally dates back to 2000 BC, finding its roots in the Hammurabi Code, but the historical basis of “title by adverse possession” is the development of the statutes of limitation on actions for recovery of land in England.
  • The first such statute was the Statute of Westminster, 1275. However, it was the Property Limitation Act, 1874, that set the period of limitation at twelve years from when the cause of action first arose, which laid the groundwork for the limitations model inherited by colonial India.
  • Act XIV of 1859 regulated the limitation of civil suits in British India.
  • After the passage of the Limitation Act in 1963, the law on adverse possession underwent significant changes.

Arguments in favour of adverse possession:

  • To avoid long disputes: The real aim of law is to neither punish the one nor reward the other.
    • However, a society should not be bothered with disputes for eternity.
    • Therefore, the law puts a limit of twelve years for such quarrels and disputes before which the title must be settled.
  • Land should be put to a judicious use: The concept of adverse possession stems from the idea that land must not be left vacant but instead, be put to judicious use.
    • Essentially, adverse possession refers to the hostile possession of property, which must be continuous, uninterrupted, and peaceful.
  • According to the Law Commission, the rationale behind this comes from considerations that the “title to land should not long be in doubt”, “society will benefit from someone making use of land the owner leaves idle,” and “persons who come to regard the occupant as owner may be protected.”
  • Original titleholder neglected his rights: The maxim that the law does not help those who sleep over their rights is invoked in support of adverse possession.

Argument against adverse possession:

  • Harsh for true owner: The law as it exists is extremely harsh for the true owner and a windfall for a dishonest person who has illegally taken possession of the property.
  • Avoidable and expensive litigation: True owners have been subjected to, such as “avoidable and expensive litigation” by unscrupulous persons” who are acquainted with fraud, the already overburdened machinery of the courts is further saddled with avoidable work, much to the misery of the litigants.
  • Struck off law will not harm anybody: lf the law of adverse possession is struck off from the Limitation Act it will not hinder anybody’s right nor will it cause any neglect of land resources.
  • Promotes false claims: The fact that land prices are skyrocketing in both rural and urban areas defeated the Commission’s argument that land is not put to proper use.
    • In an over-populous country like India where land is scarce, the law of adverse possession only promotes false claims under the colour of adverse possession, which ultimately does not stand judicial scrutiny.
  • Different laws for state and private individuals: If in a welfare state and under law, state and common person have same rights and same Acts being applicable, then why is there a different time window for the adverse possession over Government land.

SC Rulings:

  • In the 2004, Karnataka Board of Wakf v Government of India, the apex court held “A person who claims adverse possession should show:
    • on what date he came into possession,
    • what was the nature of his possession,
    • whether the factum of possession was known to the other party,
    • how long his possession has continued, and
    • His possession was open and undisturbed.”
  • In 2008, HemajiWaghaji Jat v. BhikhabhaiKhengarbhai Harijan and Others, the court ruled that Article 65 “ousts an owner on the basis of inaction within limitation” and is “irrational, illogical, and wholly disproportionate” and recommended the government “to seriously consider and make suitable changes in the law of adverse possession”.
    • Owing to the importance of the subject, coupled with the fact that the reference had been pending since 2008, the present Law Commission found it “expedient to deliberate afresh over the subject.”

Way Forward:

Parliament might simply require the adverse possession claimants to possess the property in question for a period of 30 to 50 years, rather than a mere 12. A longer statutory period would also decrease the frequency of adverse possession suits and ensure that only those claimants most intimately connected with the land acquire it, while only the most passive and unprotected owners lose title.

Source:    Indian Express

Fixed Dose Combinations (FDCs) Ban Issue


  • Mains – GS 2 (Governance)

Context: The Union Health Ministry has published a gazette notification banning 14 Fixed Dose Combination (FDC) drugs citing lack of therapeutic justification and an expert committee’s recommendation for their prohibition.

About Fixed Dose Combination (FDC) Drugs:

  • Combination products or fixed dose drug combinations (FDCs) consist of two or more active drugs in a single dosage form.
  • The Food and Drug Administration (FDA) in the USA defines a combination product as a product composed of a drug and a device, a biological product and a device, a drug and a biological product, or a drug, device, and a biological product.
  • It is widely accepted that most drugs should be formulated as single compounds.
  • Examples: Phenytoin + Phenobarbitone Sodium, Chlorpheniramine + Codeine Phosphate + Menthol Syrup, Salbutamol + Bromhexine, Paracetamol + Bromhexine + Phenylephrine + Chlorpheniramine + Guaiphenesin etc

Justification for Ban:

  • The ban, which comes into effect immediately, follows recommendations of the Expert Committee formed to examine the efficacy of these drug combinations and the Drugs Technical Advisory Board.
  • The expert committee recommended, “there is no therapeutic justification for these FDCs and the FDCs may involve risk to human beings”.

Advantages of FDC Drugs:

  • Complementary Mechanism of Action: FDC formulations combine drugs with complementary mechanisms of action, which can enhance the therapeutic effectiveness of the treatment.
    • The combined action of multiple drugs in a single dosage form can target different aspects of a disease or provide a more comprehensive treatment approach.
  • Synergistic Effects: FDCs can exhibit synergistic effects, where the combined action of the drugs produces a greater therapeutic effect compared to individual drugs used alone.
    • This can result in improved efficacy and better treatment outcomes for patients.
  • Better Tolerability: In some cases, combining drugs in an FDC can help reduce side effects or improve tolerability.
    • The interaction between the drugs can minimize adverse reactions, making the treatment more manageable for patients.
  • Elongated Product Life-Cycle Management: FDC formulations can extend the life cycle of a product by combining drugs that have already been individually approved.
    • This allows pharmaceutical companies to innovate and offer new treatment options without going through the lengthy process of developing and gaining approval for completely new drugs.
  • Cost Savings: FDCs can lead to cost savings for both patients and healthcare systems. By combining multiple drugs into a single formulation, the overall cost of treatment may be reduced.
    • This can make the medication more affordable and accessible, particularly in resource-constrained settings.
  • Minimized Pill-Burden: Using FDCs reduces the number of pills a patient needs to take.
    • This can simplify treatment regimens and improve patient adherence to medication schedules, especially for individuals who need to take multiple drugs regularly.

Disadvantages of FDCs:

  • There may not be an FDC available with the appropriate drugs and/or in the most appropriate respective strength(s) for a given patient, which can lead to some patients getting too much of an ingredient and others getting too little.
    • Thus, FDCs “limit clinicians’ ability to customize dosing regimens.”
  • If an adverse drug reaction occurs from using an FDC, it becomes difficult to identify the active ingredient responsible for causing the reaction.
  • Scientists face challenges in the development stages of multi-drug formulations such as compatibility issues among active ingredients and excipients affecting solubility and dissolution.
  • If one drug is contraindicated for a patient, whole FDC cannot be prescribed.

Source: The Hindu

Practice MCQs

Daily Practice MCQs

Q1. With reference to OPEC, consider the following statements:

  1. OPEC’s members control 35 per cent of global oil supplies.
  2. OPEC has 15 members who have 82 per cent of the proven reserves of oil in the world.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q2. Consider the following statements:

  1. Genetic engineering is applied in the development of Abaucin vaccines.
  2. Abaucin is a species-selective antibiotic.

Which of the statements given above is/are incorrect?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q3. Consider the following statements:

  1. Necrophilia is an erotic attraction to corpses.
  2. Necrophilia is a punishable offence under the IPC.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

  1. 1 only
  2. 2 only
  3. Both 1 and 2
  4. Neither 1 nor 2

Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!!

ANSWERS FOR ’ 6th June 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st

ANSWERS FOR 5th June – Daily Practice MCQs

Answers- Daily Practice MCQs

Q.1) – b

Q.2) – a

Q.3) -c

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