DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th January 2024

Syllabus

• Prelims –GOVERNMENT SCHEMES

Context: Recently, the Government has notified the ANUBHAV Awards Scheme 2024.

Background:-

• The Last Date for submissions on the ANUBHAV portal will be 31 March 2024, all Line Ministries/ Departments will reach out to Pensioners to make submissions on the ANUBHAV Portal.

About ANUBHAV Awards Scheme, 2024:-

• Launched: 2015.
• Ministry: Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions.
• Objective: to incentivize and encourage more retiring employees to submit their write-ups.
• It recognises the contribution made by Retired Officials to nation-building while working in Government and to document the administrative history of India through written narratives.
• To date 54 ANUBHAV Awards conferred by the Department of Pension and Pensioners Welfare.
• On the directions of the Hon’ble Prime Minister of India, DOPPW launched an online platform entitled ‘Anubhav Portal’ in March 2015 for sharing experiences of retiring/retired Central Government employees while working with the Government.
• It is envisaged that this culture of leaving notes by retirees will become the foundation stone of good governance and administrative reforms in future.
• To participate in the scheme, retiring Central Government employees/pensioners are required to submit their Anubhav write-ups, 8 months prior to retirement and up to 1 year after their retirement.
• Thereafter, the write-ups will be published after assessment by concerned Ministries/Departments.
• The published write-ups will be shortlisted for Anubhav Awards and Jury Certificates.
• To encourage broader participation in the Anubhav Awards Scheme, 2024, the DOPPW has undertaken an Outreach Campaign to reach out to every pensioner to submit his ANUBHAV experience.
• In this regard, meetings have been held with Nodal Officers of Ministries/ Departments and CAPFs.
• Ministries/Departments have been requested to reach out to Pensioners for timely submission of ANUBHAV experiences.
• Knowledge-sharing sessions on the format of documentation of award-winning nominations have also been convened.( Padma awards))
• The ANUBHAV Awardees share their experiences in a national forum under the ANUBHAV Awardees Speak Webinar Series.

MUST READ: Padma awardee Shanti Devi

SOURCE: PIB

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following pairs with regard to sports awards : (2023)

1. Major Dhyan Chand:       For the most spectacular and outstanding performance and outstanding Khel Ratna Award performance over a period of the   last four years.
2. Arjuna Award:                   For the lifetime achievement of a sportsperson.
3. Dronacharya Award:       To honour eminent coaches who have successfully trained sportspersons or teams.
4. Rashtriya Khel:                 To recognize the contribution made by sportspersons even after their retirement.

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Q.2) Consider the following statements in respect of the 44th Chess Olympiad, 2022: (2023)

1. It was the first time that Chess Olympiad was held in India.
2. The official mascot was named Thambi.
3. The trophy for the winning team in the open section is the Vera Menchik Cup.
4. The trophy for the winning team in the women’s section is the Hamilton-Russell Cup.

How many of the statements given above are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Syllabus

• Prelims –GOVERNANCE

Context: Recently, the 17th Report on States/Union Territories performance on Centralised Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) for the month of December 2023 was released.

Background:-

• 58,016 PG cases were received by States/UTs in December 2023.

About CPGRAMS:-

• Centralised Public Grievance Redress and Monitoring System (CPGRAMS) is an online platform available to the citizens 24×7 to lodge their grievances to the public authorities on any subject related to service delivery.
• It is an online web-enabled system developed by the National Informatics Centre (Ministry of Electronics & IT [MeitY]), in association with Directorate of Public Grievances (DPG) and Department of Administrative Reforms and Public Grievances (DARPG).
• It was launched by the Department of Administrative Reforms & Public Grievances (DARPG) under the Ministry of Personnel, Public Grievances & Pensions.
• It is a single portal connected to all the Ministries/Departments of Government of India and States.
• Every Ministry and States have role-based access to this system. (Grievance Appellate Committees (GACs))
• CPGRAMS is also accessible to the citizens through a standalone mobile application downloadable through the Google Play store and a mobile application integrated with UMANG.
• The status of the grievance filed in CPGRAMS can be tracked with the unique registration ID provided at the time of registration of the complainant.
• CPGRAMS also provides an appeal facility to the citizens if they are not satisfied with the resolution by the Grievance Officer.
• After the closure of the grievance if the complainant is not satisfied with the resolution, he/she can provide feedback.
• If the rating is ‘Poor’ the option to file an appeal is enabled. (Grievance Appellate Committee (GAC) portal)
• The status of the Appeal can also be tracked by the petitioner with the grievance registration number.
• Issues which are not taken up for redress :
  • RTI Matters
  • Court-related / Subjudice matters
  • Religious matters
  • Suggestions

MUST READ: AI Powered Grievance Management Application

SOURCE: PIB

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Who among the following can join the National Pension System (NPS)? (2017)

1. Resident Indian citizens only
2. Persons of age from 21 to 55 only
3. All State Government employees joining the services after the state of notification by the respective State Governments
4. All Central Government employees including those of Armed Forces joining the services on or after 1st April, 2004

Q.2) Recognition of Prior Learning Scheme’ is sometimes mentioned in the news with reference to (2017)

1. Certifying the skills acquire by construction workers through traditional channels.
2. Enrolling the persons in Universities for distance learning programmes.
3. Reserving some skilled jobs to rural and urban poor in some public sector undertakings.
4. Certifying the skills acquired by trainees under the National Skill Development Programme.

Syllabus

• Prelims –GOVERNMENT INITIATIVES

Context: Recently, Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi inaugurated Atal Bihari Vajpayee Sewri-Nhava Sheva Atal Setu in Navi Mumbai.

Background:-

• The Prime Minister posted on X:
• “Delighted to inaugurate Atal Setu, a significant step forward in enhancing the ‘Ease of Living’ for our citizens. This bridge promises to reduce travel time and boost connectivity, making daily commutes smoother.”

About Atal Bihari Vajpayee Sewri-Nhava Sheva Atal Setu:-

• The foundation stone of the bridge was laid by the Prime Minister in December 2016.
• Vision: to improve the ‘ease of mobility’ of citizens by strengthening urban transport infrastructure and connectivity.
• It is about a 21.8 km long 6-lane bridge having about 16.5 km length over the sea and about 5.5 km on the land.
• It is the longest bridge in India.
• It is also the longest sea bridge in India. (Urban Mobility Expansion)
• It will provide faster connectivity to Mumbai International Airport and Navi Mumbai International Airport.
• It will also reduce the travel time from Mumbai to Pune, Goa and South India.
• It will also improve connectivity between Mumbai Port & Jawaharlal Nehru Port.
• It has specially designed lighting poles to withstand high-velocity winds during monsoons.
• It is also equipped with a Lightning Protection System to safeguard against potential damage caused by lightning.

MUST READ: Char Dham Highways

SOURCE: THE ECONOMIC TIMES 

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding mercury pollution: (2023)

1. Gold mining activity is a source of mercury pollution in the world.
2. Coal-based thermal power plants cause mercury pollution.
3. There is no known ·safe level of exposure to mercury.

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Q.2) In India, what is the role of the Coal Controller’s Organization (CCO)? (2022)

1. CCO is the major source of coal Statistics in the Government of India.
2. It monitors the progress of the development of Captive Coal/ Lignite blocks.
3. It hears any objection to the Government’s notification relating to the acquisition of coal-bearing areas.
4. It ensures that coal mining companies deliver the coal to end users in the prescribed time.

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1, 2 and 3
2. 3 and 4 only
3. 1 and 2 only
4. 1, 2 and 4

Syllabus

• Prelims –IMPORTANT PERSONATLITIES/ HISTORY

Context: Recently, Prime Minister paid tributes to Swami Vivekananda on his Jayanti.

Background:-

• The Prime Minister, Shri Narendra Modi has paid tributes to Swami Vivekananda on his Jayanti and National Youth Day.
• Shri Modi has also shared a video of his views on Swami Vivekananda.

About Swami Vivekananda:-

• Birth: 12 January 1863.
• Death: 4 July 1902.
• His birthday is observed as National Youth Day. (National Youth Festival)
• Named Narendra Nath Datta, Swami Vivekananda was an Indian monk who is known for his intellectual contributions to the field of religion.
• A chief disciple of Ramakrishna Paramhansa, Vivekananda is known to have introduced Hindu philosophies of Yoga and Vedanta to the Western world.
• He is remembered as the founder of the Ramakrishna Mission and the Ramakrishna Math.
• He pushed for national integration in colonial India, and his famous speech remains the one that he gave in Chicago in 1893 (Parliament of the World Religions).
• In 1984 the Government of India declared that 12 January, the birthday of Swami Vivekananda, will be celebrated as National Youth Day.
• He is known to have introduced the Hindu philosophies of Yoga and Vedanta to the West.
• Netaji Subhas Chandra Bose had called Vivekananda the “maker of modern India.”
• In 1893, he took the name ‘Vivekananda’ after Maharaja Ajit Singh of the Khetri State requested him to do so.
• He preached ‘neo-Vedanta’, an interpretation of Hinduism through a Western lens, and believed in combining spirituality with material progress.

Teachings:-

• Spiritual primacy is the central theme of Vivekananda’s teachings, through which human beings can succeed in every sphere of their lives.
• Three instruments of knowledge that he propounded are: instincts, reason, and inspiration
• Vedantic Humanism
• Religious acceptance was important and not tolerance because tolerance comes out of a superiority complex.
• The most desirable path for self-realisation was the selfless service of man.
• Divinity within ourselves
• Karma Yoga, Bhakti Yoga, Raja Yoga.

Books:-

• Raja Yoga
• Karma Yoga
• Meditation and Its Methods
• Vedanta: Voice of Freedom
• Lectures on Bhagavad Gita
• My India: The India Eternal
• Powers of The Mind
• My Master
• Essentials of Hinduism among many others.

 MUST READ: Dayanand Saraswati

SOURCE: PIB

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following freedom fighters: (2022)

1. Barindra Kumar Ghosh
2. Jogesh Chandra Chatterjee
3. Rash Behari Bose

Who of the above was/were actively associated with the Ghadar Party?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only

Q.2) With reference to educational institutions during colonial rule in India, consider the following pairs: (2018)

Institution                                     Founder

1. Sanskrit college at Benaras    William Jones
2. Calcutta Madarsa                     Warren Hastings
3. Fort William college                 Arthur Wellesley

Which of the pairs given above is/are correct?

1. 1 and 2
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 3 only

Syllabus

• Prelims –SCIENCE AND TECHNOLOGY

Context: Recently a breakthrough in Diabetes was seen with a study using FDA-Approved Drugs to show regeneration of Insulin Production in 48 Hours.

Background:-

• A new study showed how insulin-producing cells could be regenerated in the pancreas.
• Researchers, led by a team from the Baker Heart and Diabetes Institute in Australia, investigated a new use for drugs already approved by the FDA that target the EZH2 enzyme in human tissue.

About Diabetes:-

• Diabetes mellitus refers to a group of diseases that affect how the body uses blood sugar (glucose).
• Glucose is an important source of energy for the cells that make up the muscles and tissues.
• It is a condition that happens when the blood sugar (glucose) is too high.
• It develops when your pancreas doesn’t make enough insulin or any at all, or when the body isn’t responding to the effects of insulin properly.
• Diabetes affects people of all ages.

• Types of diabetes:-

• There are several types of diabetes. The most common forms include:-
• Type 2 diabetes: With this type, the body doesn’t make enough insulin, and/or the body’s cells don’t respond normally to the insulin (insulin resistance).
• This is the most common type of diabetes.
• Prediabetes: The blood glucose levels are higher than normal but not high enough to be officially diagnosed with Type 2 diabetes.
• Type 1 diabetes: This type is an autoimmune disease in which your immune system attacks and destroys insulin-producing cells in your pancreas for unknown reasons.
• Gestational diabetes: This type develops in some people during pregnancy.

Symptoms:-

• feeling very thirsty
• needing to urinate more often than usual
• blurred vision
• feeling tired
• losing weight unintentionally

Management and Treatment:-

• Blood sugar monitoring.  (Disease Surveillance System)
• Oral diabetes medications.
• Insulin injections.
• Diet management.
• Exercise.

MUST READ: Non communicable and communicable diseases

SOURCE: SCIENCE ALERT

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements in respect of probiotics: (2022)

1. Probiotics are made of both bacteria and yeast.
2. The organisms in probiotics are found in foods we ingest but they do not naturally occur in our gut.
3. Probiotics help in the digestion of milk sugars.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. 1 and 3
4. 2 and 3

Q.2) Which one of the following statements best describes the role of B cells and T cells in the human body? (2022)

1. They protect the environmental allergens. body
2. They alleviate the body’s pain and inflammation.
3. They act as immunosuppressants in the body.
4. They protect the body from the diseases caused by pathogens.

Syllabus

• Prelims –ENVIRONMENT AND ECOLOGY

Context: Recently, the Karnataka Forest Department started collecting green tax, from vehicles entering BR Hills through Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple (BRT) Tiger Reserve.

Background:-

• The Karnataka Forest Department recently started collecting green tax, Rs 10 from two-wheelers and Rs 20 from four-wheelers, entering BR Hills through BRT Tiger Reserve.

About Biligiri Rangaswamy Temple (BRT) Tiger Reserve:-

IMAGE SOURCE: researchgate.net

• Location: Karnataka.
• Area: 574.82 Km².
• It derives its name BILIGIRI from the white rocky cliff on the top of which is a temple of Lord VISHNU locally known as Rangaswamy.
• It is also believed that the hill range gets its name by white mist and silver clouds that cover these lofty hills for a greater part of the year.
• In Kannada, Biligiri means white hills – hence the name.
• It is situated in the middle of the bridge between the Western Ghats and the Eastern Ghats in South India. (Amrabad Tiger Reserve)
• This unique sanctuary exhibits scrub, dry deciduous, moist deciduous, evergreen, semi evergreen and shola forests.
• It was constituted as a Wildlife Sanctuary in 1974.
• BRT Wildlife Sanctuary was declared as a Tiger Reserve in 2011.
• Flora: Anogeissus latifolia, Dalbergia paniculata, Grewia teliaefolia, Terminalia alata, Terminalia bellirica, Terminalia paniculata, among others.
  • It is widely known for its many endemic species of plants including valuable medicinal ones.
• Fauna: tigers, elephants, leopards, wild dogs, bison, sambars, spotted deer, barking deer, four-horned antelope, sloth bears, wild boars, etc.

 MUST READ: Global Conservation Assured|Tiger Standards (CA|TS)

SOURCE: THE TIMES OF INDIA

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements : (2023)

1. In India, the Biodiversity Management Committees are key to the realization of the objectives of the Nagoya Protocol.
2. The Biodiversity Management Committees have important functions in determining access and benefit sharing, including the power to levy collection fees on the access of biological resources within its jurisdiction.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) Consider the following statements: (2023)

Once the Central Government notifies an area as a ‘Community Reserve’

1. the Chief Wildlife Warden of the State becomes the governing authority of such forest
2. hunting is not allowed in such area
3. people in such areas are allowed to collect non-timber forest produce
4. people of such areas are allowed traditional agricultural practices

How many of the above statements are correct?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. Only three
4. All four

Q1) Consider the following pairs:

How many of the above pairs are correctly matched?

1. Only one
2. Only two
3. All three
4. None

Q2) Consider the following statements

Statement-I :

Atal Bihari Vajpayee Sewri-Nhava Sheva Atal Setu is the longest bridge in the World.

Statement-II :

It is the longest sea bridge in India.

Which one of the following is correct in respect of the above statements?

1. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is the correct explanation for Statement-I
2. Both Statement-I and Statement-II are correct and Statement-II is not the correct explanation for Statement-I
3. Statement-I is correct but Statement II is incorrect
4. Statement-I is incorrect but Statement II is correct

Q3) With reference to Swami Vivekananda, consider the following statements:

1. Mahatma Gandhi had called Vivekananda the “maker of modern India.”
2. In 1893, he took the name ‘Vivekananda’ after Subhash Chandra Bose requested him to do so.
3. He preached ‘neo-Vedanta’.

How many of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 3 only
2. 1, 2 and 3 only
3. 2 and 3 only
4. 1 only

Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!!

ANSWERS FOR ’  13th January 2024 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st

Q.1) – a

Q.2) – c

Q.3) – c