DAILY CURRENT AFFAIRS IAS | UPSC Prelims and Mains Exam – 13th April 2023

Syllabus

• Prelims –Science and Technology

Context: Recently, a new detailed map of dark matter has been found to be in agreement with Einstein’s theory of gravity.

About Einstein’s theory of gravity:-

• Albert Einstein published his full theory of general relativity in 1915.
• As per this theory, no motion can exceed the speed of light.
• In general relativity (GR), concentrations of mass and energy curve the structure of spacetime, affecting the motion of anything passing near including light.
• Physicists made many exotic predictions using general relativity.

Significance of the theory:-

IMAGE SOURCE: Space – SciDump

• The theory explained the anomalous orbit of Mercury.
•  In 1919 when Arthur Eddington and his colleagues measured the influence of the Sun’s gravity on light from stars during a total solar eclipse.
• The bending of light around the Sun is small, but researchers realized the effect would be much larger for galaxies, to the point where gravity would form images of more distant objects.
  • The phenomenon now called gravitational lensing.
•  The theory predicted the existence of black holes
  • Black holes: objects with gravity so intense that nothing getting too close can escape again, not even light.
• General relativity showed that gravitation has a speed, which is the same as the speed of light. Catastrophic events like collisions between black holes or neutron stars produce gravitational waves. Researchers finally detected these waves in 2015 using the Laser Interferometer Gravitational Observatory (LIGO)
  • Laser Interferometer Gravitational Observatory (LIGO): a sensitive laboratory that took decades to develop.

MUST READ: Dark matter

SOURCE: DOWN TO EARTH

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Which one of the following is a reason why astronomical distances are measured in light-years? (2021)

1. The distance among stellar bodies does not change
2. The gravity of stellar bodies does not change
3. Light always travels in a straight line
4. The speed of light is always the same

Q.2) Consider the following phenomena (2018)

1. Light is affected by gravity.
2. The Universe is constantly expanding.
3. Matter warps its surrounding space-time.

Which of the above is/are the prediction/predictions of Albert Einstein’s General Theory of Relativity, often discussed in media?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Syllabus

• Prelims –Governance

Context:Recent studies have shown that Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF) in Andhra Pradesh have yielded more produce than conventional methods.

About Zero Budget Natural Farming (ZBNF):-

IMAGE SOURCE: Things to know about Zero Budget Natural Farming / (SPNF) – Agrikrit

• Zero budget natural farming is a method of chemical-free agriculture drawing from traditional Indian practices.
• It was originally promoted by agriculturist and Padma Shri recipient Subhash Palekar.
  • He developed it in the mid-1990s as an alternative to the Green Revolution’s methods driven by chemical fertilizers, pesticides and intensive irrigation.
• Objective: to bring down the cost of production to nearly zero and return to a pre-green revolution style of farming.

The four wheels of ZBNF are:-

• Jiwamrita       

• • It is a mixture of fresh cow dung and aged cow urine, jaggery, pulse flour, water and soil.
  • This is a fermented microbial culture that adds nutrients to the soil and acts as a catalytic agent to promote the activity of microorganisms and earthworms in the soil.
  • About 200 litres of jivamrita should be sprayed twice a month per acre of land.
  • After three years, the system is supposed to become self-sustaining.
• Bijamrita        
  • It is a mix of desi cow dung and urine, water, bund soil and lime that is used as a seed treatment solution prior to sowing.
• Mulching        
  • It is Covering the plants with a layer of dried straw or fallen leaves.
  • It is meant to conserve soil moisture and keep the temperature around the roots at 25-32 degrees Celsius.
  • It allows microorganisms to do their job.
• Waaphasa      
  • It is providing water to maintain the required moisture-air balance.

MUST READ: Natural farming

SOURCE:DOWN TO EARTH

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) With reference to the “Tea Board” in India, consider the following statements: (2022)

1. The Tea Board is a statutory body.
2. It is a regulatory body attached to the Ministry of Agriculture and Farmers Welfare.
3. The Tea Board’s Head Office is situated in Bengaluru.
4. The Board has overseas offices at Dubai and Moscow.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 3
2. 2 and 4
3. 3 and 4
4. 1 and 4

Q.2) System of Rice Intensification” of cultivation, in which alternate wetting and drying of rice fields is practiced, results in: (2022)

1. Reduced seed requirement
2. Reduced methane production
3. Reduced electricity consumption

Select the correct answer using the code given below:

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Syllabus

• Prelims –Polity

Context: Recently, Advocate Prashant Bhushan argued that instead of implementing the Agnipath scheme, the government should complete the old process and cited the doctrine of promissory estoppel.

About Doctrine of promissory estoppel:-

IMAGE SOURCE: PPT – CONSIDERATION PowerPoint Presentation, free download – ID:6208176 (slideserve.com)

• The Doctrine of Promissory Estoppel works on the principle of equity, fairness and moral conscience.
• The doctrine of Promissory Estoppel means when an individual with an intention of forming a relationship which is lawful makes a clear promise to another individual and the latter individual acts on it, that promise becomes an obligation for the individual who made the promise.
  •  Hence, then going back from its words is not permissible.
•  The law commission recommended suggestions to form a new section as Section 25A in the Indian Contract Act in the 108th report for this doctrine.
• No provisions as such are there which ensures availability of relief under this doctrine.
•  At the same time, it can be implemented on the basis of equity, to defend the aggrieved party.
•  The doctrine of estoppel in India is a rule of evidence included into Section 115 of The Indian Evidence Act, 1872.
• Promissory Estoppel’s application can invalidate the constitutional provision provided under Article 299, which talks about immunity granted against the personal accountability of an individual making the promise.

MUST READ: Doctrine of necessity

SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2022)

1. Government law officers and legal firms are recognized as advocates, but corporate lawyers and patent attorneys are excluded from recognition as advocates.
2. Bar Councils have the power to lay down the rules relating to legal education and recognition of law colleges.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021)

1. Judicial custody means an accused is in the custody of the concerned magistrate and such accused is locked up in police station, not in jail.
2. During judicial custody, the police officer in charge of the case is not allowed to interrogate the suspect without the approval of the court.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Syllabus

• Prelims –Economy

Context: Recently, the Central Board of Direct Taxes (CBDT) has notified the provisional cost inflation index (CII) for the fiscal 2023-24.

About Cost inflation index (CII):-

• The CII is an index that is used to calculate the inflation-adjusted rise in the value of an asset including land, buildings, houses, gold jewellery, debt mutual funds, and so on.
• This CII number will assist in determining the long-term capital gains on which one is required to pay taxes while filing your income tax returns (ITR) next year.
• This number is used to calculate inflation-adjusted cost for only those assets that allow for inflation-adjusted (indexation benefit).
• As a result, the CII value cannot be used to calculate LTCG/LTCL on equity mutual funds.
  • This is because any sum above Rs 1 lakh each fiscal year is taxed at a flat rate of 10% without the advantage of indexation.

Calculating CII:-

• The formula to calculate inflation-adjusted cost price is:
  •  (CII of the year of sale/CII for the year of purchase) * Actual cost price.
• The government declared in Budget 2017 that the base year would be changed from 1981 to 2001 due to challenges in obtaining appropriate information by taxpayers.

MUST READ: WPI inflation

SOURCE: FINANCIAL EXPRESS

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) With reference to the Indian economy, consider the following statements: (2022)

1. If the inflation is too high, Reserve Bank of India (RBI) is likely to buy government securities.
2. If the rupee is rapidly depreciating, RBI is likely to sell dollars in the market.
3. If interest rates in the USA or European Union were to fall, that is likely to induce RBI to buy dollars.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) With reference to the India economy, what are the advantages of “Inflation-Indexed Bonds (IIBs)”? (2022)

1. Government can reduce the coupon rates on its borrowing by way of IIBs.
2. IIGs provide protection to the investors from uncertainty regarding inflation.
3. The interest received as well as capital gains on IIBs are not taxable.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Syllabus

• Prelims –Sports

Context: Recently, Harshal Patel’s missed Mankad attempt has brought back the spotlight on cricket’s most controversial mode of dismissal.

About Mankading:-

• ‘Mankading’ is the act of a bowler running out a batter on the non-striker’s end if he/she is backing up and too far ahead of the crease before the ball is delivered.
• Though this is a legally permissible dismissal, it is considered against the spirit of the game.

Background:-

• The term comes from the name of the legendary former Indian cricketer Vinoo Mankad.
• In 1947, when India was playing a series in Australia, Mankad dismissed opposition batsman Bill Brown twice by taking off the bails at the non-striker’s end before releasing the ball.

Laws on Mankading:-

• Marylebone Cricket Club (MCC), the custodian of the Laws of Cricket, accepted Mankading as a normal mode of running out the non-striker, removing it from Law 41 (Unfair play) and clubbing it with Law 38 (Run out).
• There have been several instances in men’s Test matches and ODI cricket like the recent incident that happened during the 2019 IPL when Ravichandran Ashwin ran out Jos Buttler in a game between Kings XI Punjab and Rajasthan Royals.

MUST READ: Sports Code

SOURCE: THE INDIAN EXPRESS

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following statements: (2021)

1. 21st February is declared to be International Mother Language Day by UNICEF.
2. The demand that Bangla has to be one of the national languages was raised in the Constituent Assembly of Pakistan.

Which of the above statements is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20? (2020)

1. Argentina, Mexico, South Africa and Turkey
2. Australia, Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand
3. Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam
4. Indonesia, Japan, Singapore and South Korea

Syllabus

• Prelims – International Relations

Context: Recently, American President ,Joe Biden visited Belfast to mark 25 years of Good Friday Agreement.

About Good Friday Agreement:-

IMAGE SOURCE: Belfast In Turmoil As Brexit Stokes Tensions In Northern Ireland (ibtimes.com)

• The Good Friday Agreement, also known as the Belfast Agreement.
• It is a historic peace agreement that ended the sectarian violence in Northern Ireland.
• It was was signed on April 10, 1998.
• It was signed between factions of Northern Ireland, and the governments of Britain and Ireland.
• Objective: to end decades of violence in Northern Ireland among those who wished to remain with the United Kingdom (UK) and those who wanted to join Ireland.
• The negotiators included then-British Prime Minister Tony Blair, then-Irish Prime Minister Bertie Ahern, George Mitchell, a former Democratic senator who acted as the envoy of then-US President Bill Clinton, and eight parties from Northern Ireland.
• The aim of the agreement was to establish a power-sharing government.
• Approval:-
  • The Good Friday Agreement was put to a referendum on May 22, 1998.
  •  It gained the approval of 94% of voters in Ireland and 71% in Northern Ireland.

Current Statues of the agreement:-

• The Good Friday Agreement continues to be in place, but issues have emerged due to Brexit and the Northern Ireland Protocol.
• Northern Ireland Protocol: a plan agreed upon by the UK and the EU to check goods arriving in Northern Ireland from the rest of the UK to ensure they follow EU rules.

MUST READ: India and UK – Free Trade Agreement Negotiations

SOURCE:  THE INDIAN EXPRESS

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Consider the following pairs: (2020)

International agreement/ set-up Subject

1. Alma-Ata Declaration – Healthcare of the people
2. Hague Convention – Biological and Chemical Weapons
3. Talanoa Dialogue – Global Climate Change
4. Under2 Coalition – Child Rights

Which of the pairs given above is/are correctly matched?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 4 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 2,3 and 4 only

Q.2) In which one of the following groups are all the four countries members of G20? (2020)

1. Argentina Mexico, South Africa and Turkey
2. Australia Canada, Malaysia and New Zealand
3. Brazil, Iran, Saudi Arabia and Vietnam
4. Indonesia Japan Singapore and South Korea

Syllabus

• Prelims –Environment and Ecology

Context: Recent reports suggest that India’s newest named frog ‘Amolops siju’ is a dark cave dweller in Meghalaya.

About Amolops siju:-

• Amolops siju is named after the Siju cave system of Meghalaya, from where four specimens were collected.
• This is the second cave-dwelling species of frog recorded from India after  Micrixalus spelunca in Tamil Nadu nine years ago.
•  Frogs are known to inhabit the subterranean world of caves due to the constant humidity and temperature that a cave ecosystem provides.
• The  Amolops siju is the first cave-dwelling cascade frog from the northeast.
• Cascade frogs being morphologically cryptic in nature, tissue samples of the specimens were subjected to molecular studies to ascertain their specific identity from the other known species.
• Amolops siju is the fourth species of cascade frog described from the northeast .
  •  They had earlier described  Amolops Chanakya, Amolops terraorchis, and  Amolops tawang from Arunachal Pradesh.

Siju Cave:-

• The cave is a natural limestone cave.
• It is located in the South Garo Hills District of Meghalaya, Northeast India.
• The cave contains the twilight zone, an area with limited light.
• This ‘dark zone’ has consistent ‘temperature and humidity’ all year long.
• The cave is known to harbour more than 100 faunal species, mostly invertebrates like cave crickets, spiders, beetles, and earthworms.

MUST READ: New Species of frog in Andaman found

SOURCE: THE HINDU

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) Certain species of which one of the following organisms are well known as cultivators of fungi? (2022)

1. Ant
2. Cockroach
3. Crab
4. Spider

Q.2) Which one of the following is a filter feeder? (2021)

1. Catfish
2. Octopus
3. Oyster
4. Pelican

Syllabus

• Prelims –Economy

Context: Recently, Four states raise Rs 5,800 crore through State Development Loans at bond auction.

About State Development Loans:-

• State Development Loans (SDLs) are dated securities issued by states for meeting their market borrowings requirements.
• Purpose of issuing State Development Loans: to meet the budgetary needs of state governments.
• Each state can borrow upto a set limit through State Development Loans.
• The SDL securities issued by states .
• They are credible collateral for meeting the SLR requirements of banks as well as a collateral for availing liquidity under the RBI’s LAF including the repo.
• SDL is that it is a market oriented instrument for states to mobilise funds from the open market.
• Higher the fiscal strength of a state, lower will be the interest rate (yield) it has to pay for the SDL borrowings.
• SDLs are are auctioned by the RBI through the e-Kuber
  • e-Kuber : dedicated electronic auction system for government securities and other instruments.
• RBI holds SDL auctions once in a fortnight.
• The RBI will purchase the SDLs through a multi-security auction using the multiple price method.
• The result of the auction will be announced on the same day.

MUST READ: Sovereign Green Bonds (SGB)

SOURCE: BUISINESS STANDARD

PREVIOUS YEAR QUESTIONS

Q.1) With reference to Non-Fungible Tokens (NFTs), consider the following statements: (2022)

1. They enable the digital representation of physical assets.
2. They are unique cryptographic tokens that exist on a blockchain.
3. They can be traded or exchanged at equivalency and therefore can be used as a medium of commercial transactions.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1, 2 and 3

Q.2) With reference to India, consider the following statements: (2021)

1. Retail investors through Demat account can invest in Treasury Bills and Government of India Debt Bonds in the primary market
2. The “Negotiated Dealing System-Ordering Matching” is a government securities trading platform of the Reserve Bank of India.
3. The “Central Depository Services Ltd” is jointly promoted by the Reserve Bank of India and the Bombay Stock Exchange.

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 1 and 2
3. 3 only
4. 2 and 3

Syllabus

• Mains – GS 2 (Polity and Governance)

Context: The Supreme Court observed in a judgment that preventive detention laws in India are a colonial legacy and confer arbitrary power to the state.

• The Court warned that these laws are extremely powerful and have the potential to provide the state with free discretion.

About Preventive Detention:

• Preventive detention means detention of a person without trial and conviction by a court.
  • Its purpose is not to punish a person for a past offence but to prevent him from committing an offence in the near future.
• The detention of a person cannot exceed three months unless an advisory board reports sufficient cause for extended detention.
• Protection:
  • Article 22 grants protection to persons who are arrested or detained.
  • Article 22 has two parts—the first part deals with the cases of ordinary law and the second part deals with the cases of preventive detention law.

Two Types of Detentions:

• Preventive detention is when a person is held in police custody only on the basis of a suspicion that they would conduct a criminal act or cause harm to society.
  • The police have the authority to hold anyone they suspect of committing a criminal offence and also to make arrests without a warrant or a magistrate’s authorization in certain cases.
• Punitive detention, which means detention as a punishment for a criminal offence. It occurs after an offence is actually committed, or an attempt has been made towards the commission of that crime.

Preventive Detention Laws in India: Parliament passed a legislation named Preventive Detention Act, 1950 which talks about the detention of a person on the grounds of defense, foreign affairs or the security of the state.

History:

• The constitutionality of Preventive Detention Act, 1950 was challenged in the case of K. Gopalan V. State of Madras where a leader named A.K. Gopalan was detained in Madras jail from 1947.
• He challenged the validity of the aforesaid act as this act of state of further detaining him is in violation of Article 13, Article 19 and Article 21 and provisions of the act are not in accordance with Article 22 enshrined under the Constitution of India.
• The case was decided by 4:1 ratio, where the majority does not recognize detention as an infringement of personal liberty under Article 21.
• Minority view in the case: Preventive detention, which is dealt with in Article 22, also amounts to deprivation of personal liberty which is referred to in Article 21, and is a violation of the right of freedom of movement dealt with in Article 19(1)(d).
• The interrelationship between fundamental rights paved the way for acknowledging privacy as a fundamental right in Justice K.S. Puttaswamy case by overruling MP Sharma and Kharak Singh case.

Safeguard Against Misuse of Preventive Detention

• Time-period: A person may be taken to preventive custody only for 3 months at the first instance.
  • If the period of detention is extended beyond 3 months, the case must be referred to an Advisory Board consisting of persons with qualifications for appointment as judges of High Courts.
• Permission of Advisory board: It is implicit that the period of detention may be extended beyond 3 months, only on approval by the Advisory Board.
• Grounds of detention: Detainee is entitled to know the grounds of his detention.
  • The state, however, may refuse to divulge the grounds of detention if it is in the public interest to do so.
  • This power conferred on the state leaves scope for arbitrary action on the part of the authorities.
• Legal options: Detaining authorities must give the detainee earliest opportunities for making representation against the detention.

Concerns:

• The government holds the right to conceal information which it considers to be against public interest to disclose.
• The power of preventive detention is mostly misused by the authorities.
• The use of preventive detention even during peacetime denotes ‘anachronism’.
• It is a matter of irony that the makers of our Constitution, who themselves were once victims of the tyranny of preventive detention laws, still chose to grant powers to governments under the Constitution to enact such laws.
• According to Section 50 of the Criminal Procedure Code (CRPC), any person arrested has to be informed of the grounds of arrest and has the right to bail.
  • But getting bail is not a simple task in reality.

Way Forward:

The preventive detention should be strictly used with the delicate balance between social security and citizen freedom. As the Supreme Court has observed that to prevent misuse of this potentially dangerous power, the law of preventive detention has to be strictly construed and need to follow meticulous compliance with the procedural safeguards. There is an urgent need to ensure this.

Source: The Hindu

MUST READ: Constitutional provisions related to personal liberty in brief

Syllabus

• Mains – GS 2 (International Relations)

Context: The World Health Organization (WHO) marks its 75th anniversary on 7 April 2023.

About World Health Organization (WHO):

Source:   news-medical.net

• It is a specialised agency of the United Nations with a mandate to act as a coordinating authority on international health issues.
• It is headquarters at Geneva, Switzerland.
• It has 194 Member States, 150 country offices, six regional offices.
• It works in collaboration with its member states usually through the Ministries of Health.

Successes of WHO

• Health as a human right: Efforts helped in realising the goal of health as a human right.
• Some of the WHO’s most lauded successes include its child vaccination programs, which contributed to the eradication of smallpox in 1979 and a 99 percent reduction in polio infections in recent decades, and its leadership during the 2003 severe acute respiratory syndrome (SARS) epidemic.
• The agency has the exclusive authority to declare global health emergencies, which it has done several times since its members granted it the power in 2007.

Failed attempts of WHO:

• The 2014 Ebola outbreak in Guinea, Liberia and Sierra Leone offers an example of a WHO job less well done.
• The organization’s agreement to give up on trying to eradicate malaria in the 1960s represents another example of what some consider a botched job.
• The WHO launched the Global Malaria Eradication Programme (GMEP) in 1955.
  • But there was little to no progress in sub-Saharan Africa under the program, and in many places, failure to sustain GMEP actually led to a resurgence of malaria.
  • In 1969, the program was discontinued.
• In the COVID-19 pandemic the WHO was criticized for not doing enough to support member states in their fight against the disease.
• The WHO has become increasingly dependent on voluntary contributions, which puts pressure on the organization to align its goals with those of its donors.

Challenges:

• There is no single document which comprehensively describes its responsibilities, obligations and powers with respect to infectious diseases.
• WHO’s authority is recommendatory in nature.
• The organisation’s responsibilities during a pandemic include surveillance, monitoring and evaluation, developing guidance for member states-lacks the ability to direct an international response to a life-threatening epidemic.
• WHO’s annual operating budget is smaller than that of many university hospitals.
• Lack of preparedness for the Global pandemic.
  • It has delayed to declare Covid-19 as Public Health Emergency of international concern.
• No Appropriate action and investigation against the China that shows the lack of independence.
• Delay to provide crucial information regarding Covid-19 like human to human transition etc.

Need for WHO Reforms:

• Funding: Any attempt to build a stronger WHO must first begin with increased mandatory funding by member states.
• Providing more powers: It is time to provide the agency with more powers to demand that member states comply with the norms and to alert WHO in case of disease outbreaks that could cause global harm.
  • WHO does not have the authority to enforce its recommendations.
• Information sharing: The long delay and the reluctance of China to share vital information readily and quickly regarding the novel coronavirus, including the viral outbreak in Wuhan.
• Member states do not face penalties for non-compliance: This has to change for any meaningful protection from future disease outbreaks.

Way Forward: Nine point plan proposed by India- Approach on WHO reforms

• Changes in mechanisms to monitor health emergencies that can cross borders.
• Giving the head of the UN body greater power to declare an international public health emergency.
  • Devising “objective criteria with clear parameters” for declaring a “public health emergency of international concern” (PHEIC) such as the Covid-19 pandemic.
• A greater role for the world body in ensuring fair, affordable and equitable access to Covid-19 vaccines.
• WHO’s regular budget should also be increased so that core activities are financed from it, without putting an overwhelming financial burden on developing countries.
• Voluntary contributions should be unearmarked to ensure that the WHO has necessary flexibility for its usage in areas where they are required the most.
• Changes and improvements in the body’s funding and governance: Effective involvement of all countries in budget implementation and spending.
  • Strong and robust financial accountability frameworks should be created, a significant amount of transparency with respect to data reporting and disbursement of funds” should be established, and the efficiency of funding mechanisms such as the WHO Solidarity Response Fund should be strengthened.
• India called for strengthening capacities in countries found to be deficient and for enhancing international cooperation.
• Calling for a global framework for managing infectious diseases and pandemics, including capacities such as testing and surveillance systems, the document highlighted the “need to establish a system facilitating pan-world surveillance by leveraging innovating ICT tools”.
• The Indian government also called for efforts to ensure fair, affordable and equitable access to all tools for combating Covid-19 pandemic and, therefore, the need to build a framework for their allocation.

Source:   Indian Express

MUST READ: Pandemics of the world

Q.1) Consider the following statements regarding the State Development Loans (SDLs):

1. SDLs are dated securities issued by states for meeting their market borrowings requirements.
2. SDLs are auctioned by the Commercial Banks through the e-Kuber

Which of the statements given above is/are correct?

1. 1 only
2. 2 only
3. Both 1 and 2
4. Neither 1 nor 2

Q.2) With reference to India’s biodiversity, Amolops siju, Amolops Chanakya, Amolops terraorchis, and  Amolops tawang are

1. Birds
2. Primates
3. Reptiles
4. Amphibians

Q.3) Consider the following statements regarding the Cost inflation index (CII):

1. The CII is an index that is used to calculate the inflation-adjusted rise in the value of an asset including land, buildings, houses, gold jewellery etc.
2. CII number will assist in determining the short-term capital gains on which one is required to pay taxes while filing your income tax returns (ITR) next year.
3. The CII value cannot be used to calculate LTCG/LTCL on equity mutual funds.

Which of the statements given above are correct?

1. 1 and 2 only
2. 2 and 3 only
3. 1 and 3 only
4. 1 2 and 3

Comment the answers to the above questions in the comment section below!!

ANSWERS FOR ’ 13th April 2023 – Daily Practice MCQs’ will be updated along with tomorrow’s Daily Current Affairs.st

Q.1) – c

Q.2) – b

Q.3) – a